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a nice singleton


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KQxx

AQx

x

KJxxx

 

 

partner opens 1 (precision 2+, limited to 15, 11-13 if balanced)

 

RHO bids 3NT and describes it as solid minor.

 

with nothing better to do you double, RHO will escape to 4.

 

Our side is vulnerable and theirs is not if it matter.s

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partner tries 4 over a forcing pass

I'd pass. 4 might be better, but it might be worse too. I don't think he'll remove 4 to 5 with a 3424 shape.

 

I suppose we might have slam on too, but we haven't even found an eight-card fit yet, and things aren't likely to break well.

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I feel pretty safe at the 5 level I would bid 4n which should be for 2 places to play

clubs and a major with 5d being pick a major. Not going to risk playing in a 43 major

suit fit. It is not much of a risk to try the 5 level who knows p may be able to get us

to slam.

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KQxx

AQx

x

KJxxx

 

 

partner opens 1 (precision 2+, limited to 15, 11-13 if balanced)

 

RHO bids 3NT and describes it as solid minor.

 

with nothing better to do you double, RHO will escape to 4.

 

Our side is vulnerable and theirs is not if it matter.s

Probably we need to know more. For example, does 2 deny a 5 card major? Does it deny 5 card clubs and 4 card major? What did my double show? If I make a forcing pass, what are partner's options?

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"I'd pass. 4 might be better, but it might be worse too. I don't think he'll remove 4 to 5 with a 3424 shape...."

 

I bid 4.

 

I think partner should remove with gnasher's suggested hand. My forcing pass implies two possible suits to play, since we eliminate their suit and partner's four card suit I must have the blacks. Would not have made forcing pass with one suiter. By the way, under the Bridge World Standard agreements, the forcing pass is on only at this vulnerability(Unfavorable).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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Pass then remove 4 to 4 to show the blacks. What am I missing?

Nothing, except that 4 might be your only game.

Not sure that DBL of 3NT is such an obvious first move, but I guess many have no agreements what an immediate 4/4 should mean in this sequence.

 

Rainer Herrmann

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Nothing, except that 4 might be your only game.

Not sure that DBL of 3NT is such an obvious first move, but I guess many have no agreements what an immediate 4/4 should mean in this sequence.

 

Rainer Herrmann

 

I think the chances that 4 is best are low. If partner is 3433, he would double, so I expect a decent hand for play. And with:

 

AJx

Kxxx

xx

AQxx

 

He would have to be a drooler not to convert to 5, and I should arguably raise.

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I think the chances that 4 is best are low. If partner is 3433, he would double, so I expect a decent hand for play. And with:

 

AJx

Kxxx

xx

AQxx

 

He would have to be a drooler not to convert to 5, and I should arguably raise.

He can't have that hand, from the OP it looks like he'd have opened 1N with that.

 

But I agree with your method, of P then remove 4 to 4.

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I think the chances that 4 is best are low. If partner is 3433, he would double, so I expect a decent hand for play. And with:

 

AJx

Kxxx

xx

AQxx

 

He would have to be a drooler not to convert to 5, and I should arguably raise.

 

If he's removing 4 to 5, wouldn't he bid 4NT with a slam-suitable hand?

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