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6/4 Distribution - Find the Slam (Auction)


Opener's Best Rebid  

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  1. 1. What is West's Best Rebid



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What is the best bid (and its meaning) for West to make following East's 2C bid? I am playing 2/1, 2C promising 11+ and 4+ clubs.

 

 

It seems like 2, 3, 3(splinter), 4(what meaning does this typically suggest?) and maybe even 4(also a splinter?) are all conceivable options.

 

Perhaps there are some other good options I didn't think of.

 

 

:o Thanks ! B-)

 

 

 

 

Edit: My usage of 'jump reverse' was incorrect, as two posters have mentioned all ready. I am no longer confident anyone recommends the use of 3D as a natural jump shift showing additional values and a 5/4 shape or better after a forcing response, and have edited small parts of the post to reflect this change and avoid unnecessary confusion. My misunderstanding stemmed from a misreading of Max Hardy's (in-depth) "Two over One Game Force".

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To avoid confusion, I would steer clear of bidding 3. I believe it should be a splinter raise of clubs, but I can see an argument that it would be a picture bid - 5-5 or better in the pointed suits. A jump reverse showing a strong 5-4 or better would never occur to me, as 2 is forcing.

 

Playing IMPs, I would bid 3, as that is the most likely slam. Playing MPs, I might bid 2 given the strength of my spade suit. But I think I would still bid 3, as slam is a real possibility over a 2 call. And we can still get to spades, especially if responder has real spade support.

 

East's 5 call is either a misprint or a lunacy. I am hoping it is a misprint. If I held the East hand and, after partner's 3 bid, someone put a gun to my head and said "find the right contract on the next call or you die," I would bid 6. Even 7 is probably better than 5. Partner is unlimited (well, he doesn't have a 2 opening), and he could easily hold Axxxx Kxx A Kxxx or better. 13 tricks could be a claim on a cross ruff. A run of the mill hand like Axxxx Kx Ax Kxxx produces and easy 12 tricks on 2-2 clubs or some nice lie of the diamond suit. 5 is only right if we have 2 fast diamond losers (I am ignoring the possibility that we have one fast diamond loser and the K to lose, as that is unlikely given partner's 3 call).

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Since a Reverse is forcing, a common definition for a Jump-Reverse is a splinter .

 

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

 

EDIT: I agree with Stephen Tu for the example hand here . There is no Diam - Reverse.

 

If playing 2/1 GF, then:

 

1S - 2C

??

.. 2D = forcing

.. 3D! = some play as a splinter: jump-over-a-forcing ( Diam ) - bid

or

.. 2H = forcing

.. 3H! = splinter

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Nitpicking: 1s-2c-3d is a "jump-shift", not a "jump-reverse". 1h-2c-3s, or something like 1c-1h-3d, would be a "jump-reverse".

 

1s-2c-2d is not a reverse, it's just a normal rebid.

 

1h-2c-2s = reverse (may or may not require extra values depending on agreement, but nevertheless always considered a reverse)

1h-2d-3c = sometimes called "high reverse"

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[hv=pc=n&w=sakqt65h43dqck642&e=sha9djt732caqjt95&d=w&v=e&b=16&a=1sp2cp3cp5cppp]266|200[/hv]

 

What is the best bid (and its meaning) for West to make following East's 2C bid? I am playing 2/1, 2C promising 11+ and 4+ clubs.

 

 

It seems like 2, 3, 3(splinter), 4(what meaning does this typically suggest?) and maybe even 4(also a splinter?) are all conceivable options.

 

Perhaps there are some other good options I didn't think of.

 

 

:o Thanks ! B-)

 

 

Edit: My usage of 'jump reverse' was incorrect, as two posters have mentioned all ready. I am no longer confident anyone recommends the use of 3D as a natural jump shift showing additional values and a 5/4 shape or better after a forcing response, and have edited small parts of the post to reflect this change and avoid unnecessary confusion. My misunderstanding stemmed from a misreading of Max Hardy's (in-depth) "Two over One Game Force".

I like a 3D splinter bid. Also, just to clarify, I play that the only time 2C isn't game forcing is when a misfit is found, i.e., 1S-2C-2H-3C: can be passed if opener has a minimum without 2-card club support. Because of that, I think it is better to support clubs right away with either a splinter or simple raise as otherwise there is always a question about how good of support there really is.

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I raise 2 to 3 and don't see a problem except that the 5 bid is particularly ill advised. The East hand has slam potential written all over it.

 

If pard just bids 3 over that it's smooth sailing whether I bid big black now or 3 - p - 4 - p - 4.

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What is the best bid (and its meaning) for West to make following East's 2C bid? I am playing 2/1, 2C promising 11+ and 4+ clubs.

 

Your system isn't clear here. Is 2C forcing to game? If not, then West needs to bid something more than 3C, and 5C shows some extras. If so, then 5C shows a minimum hand with nothing interesting to say and is simply wrong on this hand. I don't think much of 5C in either case, but they convey significantly different meanings in the two cases.

 

As to what West should bid, a splinter looks spot on - especially if I can bid it below 3NT. I am likely to continue with 4C if partner does sign off in 3NT, but at least partner has a good picture of the hand at this point.

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2C is game-forcing except stops in 4 of a minor are permissible with bad fits.

 

3 - 3

3 - 4 should surely be forcing now and stronger than 5 since we have a fit.

 

I don't like the 4 splinter which would blow off 3nt or 4 as a landing spot, especially at mp's and 3 would be natural for us.

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I am still looking for a hand where jumping to 5m on a constructive auction ends up being the winner. No exception found here.

 

Depending on how many clubs East promises with 2 clubs west should bid 4 or 3, 3[di[ is normally taken as a strong 5-5, but if it is splinter obviously use it.

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