bd71 Posted July 9, 2013 Report Share Posted July 9, 2013 [hv=d=w&v=b&b=4&a=1dp1hp2cp2s(Artificial%20GF)p3dp3hp3n]133|100[/hv] 2/1. What should you know about West's strength and distribution. Specifically, does 3N limit his hand, and if so to what? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted July 9, 2013 Report Share Posted July 9, 2013 I think he's limited to whatever 2♣ limited him to. What it shows is spades stopped very short hearts and 6♦ and 4♣. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted July 9, 2013 Report Share Posted July 9, 2013 With a max he would have bid something else, probably 4NT. Bidding 3NT I think he has no more than 15(16). With this shape he could have 10 according to the rule of 20 so a good 16 count is substantial extras and should be shown. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted July 9, 2013 Report Share Posted July 9, 2013 I think he's limited to whatever 2♣ limited him to. What it shows is spades stopped very short hearts and 6♦ and 4♣.With spades stopped, they would have bid 2NT over 2♠ so a half-stopper would be a better description. Whether a 6th diamond has been shown depends on what our mark-time bid over 2♠ is. And with a maximum, Opener would have bid something more encouraging over 3♥. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bd71 Posted July 9, 2013 Author Report Share Posted July 9, 2013 With a max he would have bid something else, probably 4NT. And with a maximum, Opener would have bid something more encouraging over 3♥. Perhaps it's not optimal, but 4N would be RKC for hearts in our system. What other non-limiting bids would you consider w/ 2164 distribution instead of 3N? Suppose hand is: ATxAQJxxxAxxx What would you recommend? Now, suppose you're a bit weaker: ATxAJxxxxAxxx What's your preference? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted July 9, 2013 Report Share Posted July 9, 2013 I suppose you are also not allowing us 3♠ as a general force? This question is a little like asking what to open with 18 balanced playing a system where all opening bids promise an unbalanced hand except 1NT 14-16 and 2NT 20-21. Playing your methods, I suppose we have to start off a hand with extras 2NT and then bid diamonds the following round. But it is your system so you should probably know better than us. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted July 9, 2013 Report Share Posted July 9, 2013 West is limited but not minimum. There are two ways to show 6-4 distribution with a higher ranking 6 card suit. They are: 1x - 1z2x - any3y and 1x - 1z2y - any3x It is my understanding that the first sequence is minimum and the second sequence shows some extras, but not a strong hand. So, given that opener in the OP bid diamonds - clubs - diamonds, he should have a good hand, not worth an immediate jump - something like 13+ - 16 -. If he had bid diamonds - diamonds - clubs he would have less - 11 - 13-. He probably has Kx or better in spades on this auction, typically 2-1-6-4 but possibly 3-0-6-4. 3NT does not limit his hand - he has already done that. 3NT just admits to the possession of a spade stop. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bd71 Posted July 9, 2013 Author Report Share Posted July 9, 2013 I suppose you are also not allowing us 3♠ as a general force? This question is a little like asking what to open with 18 balanced playing a system where all opening bids promise an unbalanced hand except 1NT 14-16 and 2NT 20-21. Playing your methods, I suppose we have to start off a hand with extras 2NT and then bid diamonds the following round. But it is your system so you should probably know better than us. I guess I don't want to allow/disallow anything, but understand a bit more about how folks would approach this. My preference is for simpler natural bidding, limiting artificial bids/complexity/memory load/diversion from "standard" for where it's really important. I thought that 4N after the 3H bid would be RKC in "standard" 2/1...are you suggesting that's wrong? If you suggesting that we really should have the 4N jump here defined as showing extras w/ a spade stopper, in this approach would you use 4S/Kickback as RKC? Or am I reading too much into the response? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeartA Posted July 9, 2013 Report Share Posted July 9, 2013 With spades stopped, they would have bid 2NT over 2♠ so a half-stopper would be a better description. Whether a 6th diamond has been shown depends on what our mark-time bid over 2♠ is. And with a maximum, Opener would have bid something more encouraging over 3♥.I'd say he has stopper, but short in ♠ (Ax, Kx, for example), he'd rather show the extra length of ♦. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted July 10, 2013 Report Share Posted July 10, 2013 I thought that 4N after the 3H bid would be RKC in "standard" 2/1...are you suggesting that's wrong?I do not play 2/1 but it seems to me to be possible but unnecessary. If Opener has heart support then they also have spade shortage (at least if 3♦ showed 6) and can mark time with a forcing 3♠. What 4♠ means is a matter for agreement but if Kickback is in play it would be a reasonable option. But what if West holds a maximum? They have to be able to bid something other than 3NT here, whether that be a natural 4NT or an artificial 3♠. Basically we have 3 hand types here to fit into 2 bids - slam drive in hearts; slam try in hearts; slam try in NT. Define either the first or the last as 4NT and bid the other 2 via 3♠. If you cannot stand this then fix it earlier in the auction, for example by extending the definition of 2NT over 4th suit forcing to include hands with slam ambition and a partial stopper. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rhm Posted July 10, 2013 Report Share Posted July 10, 2013 West is limited but not minimum. There are two ways to show 6-4 distribution with a higher ranking 6 card suit. They are: 1x - 1z2x - any3y and 1x - 1z2y - any3x It is my understanding that the first sequence is minimum and the second sequence shows some extras, but not a strong hand. So, given that opener in the OP bid diamonds - clubs - diamonds, he should have a good hand, not worth an immediate jump - something like 13+ - 16 -. If he had bid diamonds - diamonds - clubs he would have less - 11 - 13-. He probably has Kx or better in spades on this auction, typically 2-1-6-4 but possibly 3-0-6-4. 3NT does not limit his hand - he has already done that. 3NT just admits to the possession of a spade stop.The trouble with this method is that you assume your partner is strong and you will get a third chance to bid.Few players for example nowadays prefer to rebid 2♠ when holding 4♥ say over a 1NT response, at least not, unless hearts are exceptionally weak and spades strong. If you rebid 2♦ showing a minimum you might play there when you are cold for 6♣. If partner rebids his major I might want to shut up and would feel much more comfortable when I have shown 9 cards instead of six in my suits. Rainer Herrmann Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rhm Posted July 10, 2013 Report Share Posted July 10, 2013 This is a murky sequence. First it is not clear what you bid over 2♠ if nothing fits, say 2♠=2♥=5♦=4♣ with two low spades.Second I see little options for opener if he now holds 2♠-1♥-6♦=4♣ with say ♠Qx or ♠Kx. (I would rarely bid 2NT in preference to 3♦ in a constructive sequence)Opener could be minimum or he could have substantial extras, but can hardly bid anything but 3NT because he should probably declare notrump and bypassing 3NT on a likely misfit is not recommended even with quite a bit more than minimum. 3♠ is forcing, but could also be minimum with 2♠-1♥-6♦=4♣ with nothing in spades. Rainer Herrmann Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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