barsikb Posted July 1, 2013 Report Share Posted July 1, 2013 1NT- 2D-2H-4H Mild Slam Try, right? Is there a situation when opener could ask keycards with 4NT after this? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
wank Posted July 1, 2013 Report Share Posted July 1, 2013 whenever he's got a fit, a good suit of his own which will provide tricks irrespective of responder's holding and controls in the 2 other suits. something like kxx kxx ax kqjtx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barsikb Posted July 1, 2013 Author Report Share Posted July 1, 2013 Thank you, wank! I play 1NT as 15-17So 1NT- 2D-2H-4H. After that opener may ask keycards by 4NT? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted July 1, 2013 Report Share Posted July 1, 2013 Thank you, wank! I play 1NT as 15-17So 1NT- 2D-2H-4H. After that opener may ask keycards by 4NT?Yes. It can have no other meaning, and opener could have a hand that merits a 4NT call. (4NT could have another meaning, but not for purposes of this discussion). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barsikb Posted July 1, 2013 Author Report Share Posted July 1, 2013 Thank you! What about 1NT-2D-2H-4NTOpener has options of Pass, 6H, 6NT. Is there also option of 5H meaning that we have no slam but I'd rather play in Hearts than in NT even though I need to go to a higher level? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted July 1, 2013 Report Share Posted July 1, 2013 Thank you! What about 1NT-2D-2H-4NTOpener has options of Pass, 6H, 6NT. Is there also option of 5H meaning that we have no slam but I'd rather play in Hearts than in NT even though I need to go to a higher level?Yes. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barsikb Posted July 1, 2013 Author Report Share Posted July 1, 2013 Thank you, ArtK78 :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted July 1, 2013 Report Share Posted July 1, 2013 It's not really a mild slam try in std methods, but actually the only slam try with a long suit and no shortness (otherwise you could bid 3S/4m). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted July 2, 2013 Report Share Posted July 2, 2013 What are you calling Standard methods? Where I come from, 1NT - 3M as natural and slammy is normal and covers the more serious slam try. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted July 2, 2013 Report Share Posted July 2, 2013 In most countries I've played in + US, 3M is usually played as something with minors (this is just my impression). I like 3M as a forcing slam try for what it's worth but I've never seen it in real life. Anyway, for the people who don't play 3M as a forcing slam try or something with transfers, transfer then 4M is not really a mild slam try. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Wackojack Posted July 2, 2013 Report Share Posted July 2, 2013 Thank you! What about 1NT-2D-2H-4NTOpener has options of Pass, 6H, 6NT. Is there also option of 5H meaning that we have no slam but I'd rather play in Hearts than in NT even though I need to go to a higher level? A word of caution. I would estimate that 90% of players on BBO bidding 4NT here (arguably incorrectly) would mean this to be is Blackwood. The vast majority of the remaining 10% that meant the bid to be quantitative would when hearing a replay of 5♥ would hedging their bets take it it be a reply to Key card/Blackwood. I notice that the title of this thread is "Replying to texas transfer question" and yet there is nothing here on Texas transfers. 1NT-4♦ or 1NT-4♥ are texas transfers to 4♥/♠ respectively. Thus 1NT-2♦-2♥-4♥ gives you a sequence with some slam interest and 1NT-4♦-4♥ gives you a sequence with no slam interest. The exception with the latter is that if as responder you are so strong that all you want to know is how many key cards partner opened with, then you can follow the Texas transfer with 4NT key card. Texas transfers are not univerally popular. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted July 2, 2013 Report Share Posted July 2, 2013 What is it then? If your one-suited ladder looks like this:- 1NT - 4red; 4M = to play1NT - 3M = strong slam interest1NT - 4red; 4M - any = slam drive, it is entirely logical to play 1NT - 2red; 2M - 4M as a mild slam try, fitting in-between the first two sequences. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted July 5, 2013 Report Share Posted July 5, 2013 What is it then? If your one-suited ladder looks like this:- 1NT - 4red; 4M = to play1NT - 3M = strong slam interest1NT - 4red; 4M - any = slam drive, it is entirely logical to play 1NT - 2red; 2M - 4M as a mild slam try, fitting in-between the first two sequences.It is indeed entirely logical, I've already said as much in my previous post. But it's not standard from what I have seen. This is the BWS for instance: http://www.bridgeworld.com/?d=bw_standard&f=bwsall.html#IVF (for what little it is worth, of course, not saynig that it is gospel). They do not call transfer then 4M as a mild slam try. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted July 5, 2013 Report Share Posted July 5, 2013 It is indeed entirely logical, I've already said as much in my previous post. But it's not standard from what I have seen. This is the BWS for instance: http://www.bridgeworld.com/?d=bw_standard&f=bwsall.html#IVF (for what little it is worth, of course, not saynig that it is gospel). They do not call transfer then 4M as a mild slam try.That is because they are playing 3M responses as splinters, so 1NT - 2red; 2M - 4M is the only one-suited slam try without splintering. I do not think this is standard amongst beginners. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted July 5, 2013 Report Share Posted July 5, 2013 That is because they are playing 3M responses as splinters, so 1NT - 2red; 2M - 4M is the only one-suited slam try without splintering. I do not think this is standard amongst beginners.Nor are Texas transfers. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barsikb Posted July 8, 2013 Author Report Share Posted July 8, 2013 I am reading that Texas Transfers are on after interference upto 3C. Is it only about preeempts?What about 1NT(N)-2C(E)-4D(S)? Is it Texas? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barsikb Posted July 8, 2013 Author Report Share Posted July 8, 2013 What is the meaning of 1NT(N)-3D(E)-4D(S)? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted July 8, 2013 Report Share Posted July 8, 2013 Assuming that transfers are off in this situation, 4♦ says "pick a major." Responder either wants to play in 4 of a major or has a very strong hand and will bid again. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barsikb Posted July 8, 2013 Author Report Share Posted July 8, 2013 Thank you, ArtK78! And what about 1NT(N)-2C(E)-4D(S)? Is it Texas? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted July 9, 2013 Report Share Posted July 9, 2013 I would recommend keeping that as a Texas transfer even if the 2♣ overcall showed 4+ hearts (both majors or whatever). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted July 9, 2013 Report Share Posted July 9, 2013 Texas Transfers ON ...only thru 3C interference . 1NT - ( 3D ) - 4D = needed for Stayman and 1NT - ( 3D ) - 4H = natural Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PhilKing Posted July 9, 2013 Report Share Posted July 9, 2013 Thank you, ArtK78! And what about 1NT(N)-2C(E)-4D(S)? Is it Texas? There is no "answer". Each partnership has to decide for themselves. Some play "transfers off in competition", others play that they still apply up to a certain threshold of overcall, whether it be 2♣, 3♥ or whatever. What you will not find is any concensus over what is theoretically best. The expert default, if any, is easily stated as follows: "Conventions are off in competion unless we have agreed otherwise." Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted July 9, 2013 Report Share Posted July 9, 2013 Thank you, ArtK78! And what about 1NT(N)-2C(E)-4D(S)? Is it Texas?I would disagree with Phil on this point. It is my experience, at least in the US, that the vast majority of partnerships that play Texas Transfers play them on in competition as long as the interference bid is 3♣ or lower. In other words, the 4♦ bid (transfer) is a jump. Of course, each partnership is free to adopt its own methods. By the way, as far as bidding nomenclature is concerned, it is the usual practice to indicate opponents' calls in parentheses and your side's calls without parentheses. So, the auction that you stated would be: 1NT - (2♣) - 4♦ You got your point across, but this method is easier to deal with. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barsikb Posted July 10, 2013 Author Report Share Posted July 10, 2013 Thank you for all the answers. Will write bidding sequences as you recommend, ArtK78 B-) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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