eagles123 Posted June 30, 2013 Report Share Posted June 30, 2013 [hv=pc=n&w=skj95hk976dk764c6&e=sathaqjdaq85cq873]266|100[/hv] Dealer is south opps are silent can you find the slam :) Thanks, Eagles Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted June 30, 2013 Report Share Posted June 30, 2013 Not sure if slam is that great (need trumps 3-2), but the auction at my table would probably go:pass-1♣ (no opening ; 3+♣)1♥-2NT (4+♥ Walsh ; 18/19 bal or GF 4♥ or 16+ 6+♣-3♥)3♣-3♥ (relay ; 18/19 bal with 3♥)3NT-pass (signoff ; ok) With strong hands we open 1♣ when holding 4-4m. But even after a 1♦ opening there's a big difference between a 4 or a 5 card ♦ in opener's hand. Sadly we can't find that out, so even after a 1♦ opening we'll end up in 3NT (except that opps are now more likely to lead ♣). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted June 30, 2013 Report Share Posted June 30, 2013 Our auction would be: (Acol 4 card majors weak NT) P-1♦2♦(9+ 5♦ or 10+ 4♦ not denying 4M)-2N(GF bal 15-bad 19)3♥(nat)-4♦(max, slam try ♦, not 4♠, no club control)4♥(asking aces)-4♠(0/3, presumably the 3 non club aces)4N(Q♦?)-5N(yes, no side K)6♦ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted June 30, 2013 Report Share Posted June 30, 2013 [hv=pc=n&w=skj95hk976dk764c6&e=sathaqjdaq85cq873]266|100[/hv] East-West.... - p1D - 1H2NT ( 18,19... may have 4 cards ♠ )..... - 3S ( 4-4 )3NT Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted June 30, 2013 Report Share Posted June 30, 2013 I would open the west hand nv with 1d...hard to stop short now. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
wank Posted July 1, 2013 Report Share Posted July 1, 2013 p 1d 1h 2nt 4c 6d would get the job done with a minimum of stress and minority agreements. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nige1 Posted July 1, 2013 Report Share Posted July 1, 2013 [hv=pc=n&w=skj95hk976dk764c6&e=sathaqjdaq85cq873]266|100|Dealer is south opps are silent can you find the slam :) [/hv] If West opens 1♦ or replies 1♦ to East's ♣, then you might reach 6♦ :) but the slam doesn't seem to be a good proposition :( Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted July 1, 2013 Report Share Posted July 1, 2013 If West opens 1♦ or replies 1♦ to East's ♣, then you might reach 6♦ :) but the slam doesn't seem to be a good proposition :( Slam is not good? Two club ruffs, four diamonds, four hearts, two spades sounds like 12 tricks without even thinking about possible spade finesse. Entries to get ruffs? Lots of those. Bidding the slam looks much harder than making it. No way do I consider opening west hand. So it will start pass-pass-pass to east. Here opponents passes are not shown. Pass - 1♦1♥ - 2NT? Over 2NT, what do you play? West is thinking slam if 1♦ promised 4+ diamonds. Why? He has 10 hcp, and three points for the singleton. That is 13 points, getting up to close to 32 points. The key is how well the singleton club fits for opener. Let's say, for the sake of argument that you play "all transfers" over 2NT. Thus, 3♣ transfers to 3♦ (showing 4+), 3♦ to 3♥ (showing 5+), 3♥ to spades (showing 4+) and 3♠ showing clubs. The idea is that 3♣ when opener rebids 3♦ if you are really weak, you can pass in your "fit". Pass - 1♦1♥ - 2NT3♣ - 3♦3♠ - ?,,,,,, answer, 6♦, of cue=bid to see if partner shows club void The 3♠ bid is natural, and shows 4441 or 4-4-5-0. If you didn't have four spades, you would simply rebid 3NT to invite diamond slam. Some people, however use 3♠ to show spade values and to point the defense to the killing club lead against 3NT (better to just bid 3nt earlier). This is an improvement over the jump to 4♣ (splinter) as you can stop in 3NT if partner has the wrong club cards for a slam. Here partner will be rightfully encouraged to bid on, I think, with minimum wasted value in clubs, AND more importantly, with his Ax AQJ AQxx in the non-club suit, he can imagine his partner's hand perfectly... Kxxx Kxxx Kxxx x or Kxxx Kxxxx Kxxx void. There maybe a jack, but probably not a queen (with spade queen he would have opened). He needs those cards to suggest slam interest. So he will bid 6♦ or check for club void. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted July 1, 2013 Report Share Posted July 1, 2013 1♦ = 10-17, 4+ diamonds, unbal... - 1♥ = INV+ relay1♠ = min, not 4 spades unless 4450/4441... - 1NT = GF relay2♠ = 4441... - 2NT = relay3♦ = 3 controls... - 3♥ = relay4♦ = ♠K, ♥K, ♦K, no ♠Q... - 6♦ Playing a more natural system, something along the lines of: P - 1♦;1♥ - 2NT;3♥ (♠) - 3NT;4♦ - 4NT (good, 0 or 3);5♣ - 6♣;6♦ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bgm Posted July 1, 2013 Report Share Posted July 1, 2013 Try with Moscito : 1♦...... 4+♥, 9-14...1♥... INV+ Relay1♠...... 4+♠...1NT.. FG Relay2♦...... 4-5♥, 4♠, 4-5♦, 0-1♣...2♥... Relay2♠...... 4441...2NT.. Relay, QP ask3NT..... Base = 6...4♣... Relay, DCB with King Parity5♣...... Odd K, 1♦, 1/2 ♥, 1/2 ♠ Honors...6♦... S/O, knowing 3 Ks w/o ♣A Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted July 1, 2013 Report Share Posted July 1, 2013 I would open the big hand 1D. 1D-1H2N-3D3H-3S3N-4C4S-5D5H-6DP Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted July 1, 2013 Report Share Posted July 1, 2013 what winstonm said Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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