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Would you open a 5M4M2m2m hand with 1NT?


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First, I have to remark that you have your period and question mark backwards.

 

Second, YES, I have opened a 5422 as 1NT before. The hand was something like QJTxx QJxx AQ KJ. We ended up having a huge fit in Spades, but partner correctly didn't fancy her 4315. I would do it again, because next time partner will have 23(53) or 2344 and 1NT will be the best contract.

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Main reason I don't like opening this shape 1N is because many times with a fit, our hand is much better with this shape and we will be able to make games across 7 point hands. Opening 1N makes it nearly impossible to get there. In Matchpoints I might be willing to open this shape if we need some good boards and are behind, but I wouldn't in Teams.

 

As the poster above said, finding a fit is also very hard even when playing puppet, as you have to show 1 or 2 majors, cant show the 5 card major.

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I try to eliminate from my game any bids which in practice repeatedly turn out badly.

 

4441 or 5m431 with singleton king - maybe, especially if singleton king is in spades.

 

This last one fits the turned out badly thing for me but I agree with the others.

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NEVER!!!!!

 

For so many reasons!

 

When we hold 54 majors, and partner has a hand too weak to move over 1N, but with a fit for either major, we are probably in the wrong partial and may even have missed game, especially if we have constructive or (even better on this layout) Bergen raises available.

 

If one holds a 11 count 4333 with a card major it is quite normal to bid 3N rather than give away info via stayman. But playing our 5=4 major suit fit in 3N generally (not always) works out poorly.

 

In a competent partnership, we will not miss games after 1 2 by opener...perhaps more accurately, we won't miss very many games that we would have reached after 1N.

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Mikeh and I disagree on lots of things about this game, including (apparently) the merits of constructive raises and Bergen raises.

 

However in this case I agree completely with his NEVER!!! in response to the original question.

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When we venture forth from what we do to what other pairs should do, there is just too much context involved.

 

With the specific 4=5=2=2, and 15, 16 or 17 HCP the following issues emerge:

 

--What is your threshhold for a reverse into a suit partner does not have?

--Is 1NT forcing in response to 1H?

--How much does a 2NT rebid show?

--Do we play Flannery? What range?

--Do we just blast 3NT with 3-4-3-3?

--Are we willing to Play 2H when partner is 3-2-x-x-balanced, regardless of whether she has 6 or 10?

-- If not, are we willing to be in 2NT instead of 1NT when Responder is weak?

--Are we comfortable rebidding 2C in our 2-card suit when the range is 11-16?

 

I am sure there are more style things to consider, but that is the idea; and I cannot answer any of the above for anyone else. But, I do recommend they ask it of themselves and maybe tweak other parts of their system when they choose 1H or 1N.

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yes often with 4522 and just short of a reverse. however you play after 1nt you will have some sort of issue.

 

playing a non-forcing upto 11ish 1NT response whereby 2m rebid promises 4+, you're stuck between passing and missing game with 15 opposite 11 and reversing and going overboard opposite a 5 count.

 

playing a forcing NT, you can rebid 2c on your doubleton, already a bit perverse, and can still have an issue on the 3rd round over 2H preference.

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With 16+ we have Gazzilli so no reason to open 1NT. With less we may get into an ugly situation after 1-1NT-2-..., although we might end up in 2 playing our 4-3 fit if responder has less than 8HCP and a 3-1-5-4 for example. So I don't see a good reason to open 1NT either way.

 

Depending on the state of the match I could convince myself to open 1NT when I hold 15HCP, a poor 5 card suit and good values in both minors.

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