32519 Posted June 26, 2013 Report Share Posted June 26, 2013 Would you open a 5M4M2m2m hand with 1NT if it fell within your 1NT range of 15-17 HCP. After all the hand is top heavy in the majors? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
chasetb Posted June 26, 2013 Report Share Posted June 26, 2013 First, I have to remark that you have your period and question mark backwards. Second, YES, I have opened a 5422 as 1NT before. The hand was something like ♠QJTxx ♥QJxx ♦AQ ♣KJ. We ended up having a huge fit in Spades, but partner correctly didn't fancy her 4315. I would do it again, because next time partner will have 23(53) or 2344 and 1NT will be the best contract. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted June 26, 2013 Report Share Posted June 26, 2013 5-4-2-2, no.4-5-2-2, if 15 or 16 maybe.4-5-2-2, 17..no. These choices have worked fine in the past. Side issue, if partner puppets 3C/1N, we show one or two 4 card majors with 4-5 ---not the 5cM. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dustinst22 Posted June 26, 2013 Report Share Posted June 26, 2013 Main reason I don't like opening this shape 1N is because many times with a fit, our hand is much better with this shape and we will be able to make games across 7 point hands. Opening 1N makes it nearly impossible to get there. In Matchpoints I might be willing to open this shape if we need some good boards and are behind, but I wouldn't in Teams. As the poster above said, finding a fit is also very hard even when playing puppet, as you have to show 1 or 2 majors, cant show the 5 card major. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted June 26, 2013 Report Share Posted June 26, 2013 Only if I were willing to treat the 5 card major as 4. Something like Jxxx/xxxxx/AK/AK might be ok, although I have never actually held a hand that made me want to open 1NT with (54)22 yet. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PeterGill Posted June 26, 2013 Report Share Posted June 26, 2013 5M4M22. No. Never again. I try to eliminate from my game any bids which in practice repeatedly turn out badly. 6M322 with tenaces in doubletons - maybe. 4441 or 5m431 with singleton king - maybe, especially if singleton king is in spades. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ggwhiz Posted June 26, 2013 Report Share Posted June 26, 2013 I try to eliminate from my game any bids which in practice repeatedly turn out badly. 4441 or 5m431 with singleton king - maybe, especially if singleton king is in spades. This last one fits the turned out badly thing for me but I agree with the others. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted June 26, 2013 Report Share Posted June 26, 2013 NEVER!!!!! For so many reasons! When we hold 54 majors, and partner has a hand too weak to move over 1N, but with a fit for either major, we are probably in the wrong partial and may even have missed game, especially if we have constructive or (even better on this layout) Bergen raises available. If one holds a 11 count 4333 with a card major it is quite normal to bid 3N rather than give away info via stayman. But playing our 5=4 major suit fit in 3N generally (not always) works out poorly. In a competent partnership, we will not miss games after 1♠ 2♥ by opener...perhaps more accurately, we won't miss very many games that we would have reached after 1N. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted June 26, 2013 Report Share Posted June 26, 2013 One never says never, but never has arrived! This is truly a never answer. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted June 26, 2013 Report Share Posted June 26, 2013 Mikeh and I disagree on lots of things about this game, including (apparently) the merits of constructive raises and Bergen raises. However in this case I agree completely with his NEVER!!! in response to the original question. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted June 26, 2013 Report Share Posted June 26, 2013 When we venture forth from what we do to what other pairs should do, there is just too much context involved. With the specific 4=5=2=2, and 15, 16 or 17 HCP the following issues emerge: --What is your threshhold for a reverse into a suit partner does not have?--Is 1NT forcing in response to 1H? --How much does a 2NT rebid show?--Do we play Flannery? What range?--Do we just blast 3NT with 3-4-3-3?--Are we willing to Play 2H when partner is 3-2-x-x-balanced, regardless of whether she has 6 or 10? -- If not, are we willing to be in 2NT instead of 1NT when Responder is weak?--Are we comfortable rebidding 2C in our 2-card suit when the range is 11-16? I am sure there are more style things to consider, but that is the idea; and I cannot answer any of the above for anyone else. But, I do recommend they ask it of themselves and maybe tweak other parts of their system when they choose 1H or 1N. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted June 26, 2013 Report Share Posted June 26, 2013 Very rarely i would and have done so. As far as I recall without adverse consequences so far, so I would do it again. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
wank Posted June 27, 2013 Report Share Posted June 27, 2013 yes often with 4522 and just short of a reverse. however you play after 1nt you will have some sort of issue. playing a non-forcing upto 11ish 1NT response whereby 2m rebid promises 4+, you're stuck between passing and missing game with 15 opposite 11 and reversing and going overboard opposite a 5 count. playing a forcing NT, you can rebid 2c on your doubleton, already a bit perverse, and can still have an issue on the 3rd round over 2H preference. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted June 27, 2013 Report Share Posted June 27, 2013 With 16+ we have Gazzilli so no reason to open 1NT. With less we may get into an ugly situation after 1♥-1NT-2♣-..., although we might end up in 2♠ playing our 4-3 fit if responder has less than 8HCP and a 3-1-5-4 for example. So I don't see a good reason to open 1NT either way. Depending on the state of the match I could convince myself to open 1NT when I hold 15HCP, a poor 5 card ♥ suit and good values in both minors. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
yunling Posted July 2, 2013 Report Share Posted July 2, 2013 Once Kit Woolsey opened a 14-16 1NT with something like KJXX AQXXX KX JX. I can't see the point in opening 1NT with 5♠&4♥. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kael chi Posted July 7, 2013 Report Share Posted July 7, 2013 5M4M2m2m.If only the 5-cards suit is so poor that i have to treat it as 4-cards suit, i will try to onpen 1TN. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted July 7, 2013 Report Share Posted July 7, 2013 Never I also strongly tend not to open 5=2=4=2, or 5=2=2=4 hands either, but will open 2=5=2=4, or 2=5=4=2 hands. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
johnu Posted July 7, 2013 Report Share Posted July 7, 2013 Never! What if I had [hv=pc=n&s=sq763h97642dakcaq&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1hp1np]133|200[/hv] I have an book rebid of ??? Ok, I guess almost never because I would open 1NT (15-17) on this hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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