18 bal, balancing

[Cascade]

 

Kxx Kxxxx xxx Qx.

 

Kxx Qxxxx Qx Qxx

 

 

Here is the problem as I see it. The action when 2♣ comes back to us is dependent on the action partner takes or rather the set of hands on which partner does not take action over 2♣.

 

I would be happy to double with both of your example hands over 2♣. I don't consider the first one close, although I would prefer to have my ♣Q elsewhere. The second one, although a point stronger, we have less chance of having and finding a fit but I would still double.

 

Of course I am usually not really in this position as I don't have 18 points balanced and open 1♦.

 

As you say we bring all of these biases to the forums when we answer these questions.

 

Before you ask I like to double 2♣ with almost all 8+ hands with some useful values (and unsuitable for a raise or other bid - we happen to play negative free bids). I only pass with more than this with length in clubs.

[quiddity]

I fear that I am simply inviting you to post reasons why you think I am wrong. That's one of the characteristics of the game: we can each cling to our point of view on this case since it is very difficult to demonstrate empirically which is the better approach, and even when the arguments on one side are the more powerful, many of us are unable to accept that and will rationalize away anything that contradicts our point of view. I like to think that an awareness of that propensity helps mitigate its effect, but I'm not naïve enough to claim that I am immune to it.

 

Please stop posting condescending crap like this in response to simple bridge questions.

 

Let's assume my partner reopened with 2♦. Here a couple of hands on which I would pass twice...once over 2♣ and again over 2♦.

 

 

Kxx Kxxxx xxx Qx.

 

...

 

Kxx Qxxxx Qx Qxx

 

Would you? I think a negative double is reasonable, and if I passed first I would consider raising over 2♦ with a maximum and a fit (and a likely club stopper too?) Maybe this is part of the disagreement. If opener has a hand which was planning to rebid 3♦ does he always just ignore the overcall/pass and rebid 3♦ anyway? If he can have a 16-count with a decent 6-card suit and still bid just 2♦ then I think you need to act with the second hand for sure and perhaps with the first hand too.

 

I think your notion of passing and then bidding a 5 card major, when partner promised an unbalanced hand short in at least one major, is bizarre.

 

When did I ever suggest doing that?

 

If your point is that bidding 2N caters to a small group of hands, I'd agree with you. They happen to be a very important group of hands.

 

Of course that is my point. "Very important group" - what does that mean? Are we not simply concerned with the number of hands in this group versus the number of hands where 2NT does poorly? Posting a couple of cherry-picked hands where 3NT is cold is not a bridge argument. Do you disagree that 2NT is likely to do poorly whenever partner holds 6-7 balanced, any shape?

 

I'm done on this thread, no matter what you put up. I don't think I've persuaded you and that's ok with me. I'm comfortable that my approach works for me and I am reinforced by the apparent agreement of the better players who have posted on the topic.

 

lol, what is the point of participating on a bridge forum if you don't want to discuss bridge?

For the record, despite all your insinuations to the contrary, I am in no way convinced that 2♦ is right. My initial instinct was 2NT - that's what you do with 18-19 balanced+stopper, right? But when I think about the possible hands for responder, 2♦ doesn't seem terrible.

[mikeh]

edited

[aguahombre]

Raise your hand if you really think the 2NT reopening is correct with any balanced 18-19 which has a club stopper. For us, it isn't. "Delay unusual" is out, of course because 2C was the overcall. So, it is sort of natural. But, we would only do it with about 8 real tricks (solid diamonds, of course).

 

And, yes, pard stretches to make a negative double on the first round with bare tolerance to put down dummy in Diamonds at the next level if I miss her major. Thus a 2NT reopening after her pass is not likely to hit an 7-9 count. If it does, then doubling as a rebalance followed by 2NT will be ok.

[IVAN CY LO]

I play negative free bids with partner at 2 level, he can bid a 5 cards suit with just 7HCP at 2 level because it is a negative free bid. My system with partner after overcall always cue-bid = game forcing, 2M after overcall = negative free bids, around 7-10 and 5 cards in M. Double = forcing for 1 round and asking 4 cards major, obviously no 5 cards suit (around 7-10). Double and then bid a suit, 11+ with a game inv. value, 4 cards.

 

With this system partner pass after overcall, usually he has a crap hand with below 8. Game isn't our concern but we need to find a suit fit to compete. NT overcall usually showing 18-19, but we don't play overcall 2NT, usually is 1♦ - 1♥ - Pass - Pass - 1NT(18-19).

 

It is no sense to rebid a 2NT as we played direct openning 2NT = 20-21, 2C = 22+. If partner holding a 0 points crap hand, re-bid 2NT will be disaster and giving opp. 200-500 depends on vul.

 

Usually this hand partner pass overcall 2C, I will bid based on my hand and assuming he has crap. 2♦ will be my first choice. If my partner correct to any M after 2♦. It is not a forcing but saying that we don't have fit in ♦. With 2 cards in ♥ and 3 cards in ♠, I can accept his any correctness after 2♦.

 

If jump shift in new suit after 2♦, it is not likely to happen but this means an extra length(7+) and few count in strength.