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2NT after partner has made a T/O dbl?


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I have been writing a document on takeout doubles and the normal repsonses to it

 

0-7 Suit bid at lowest level

8-11 Jump bid in suit

12+ Cue-bid of opening suit

Jump to game - ?? pre-emptive long suit weakish hand??

1NT 6-9 balanced decent stop in opps suit.

 

What should 2NT mean here?

 

I thought about this approach but expect this is either slightly mad or already exists ( if so what's it called?) where after

 

1-DBL-p-2NT*

 

2NT shows a two suited hand 5/5+ with 7+HCPs with any two suits excluding openers.

 

Partner then rebids his shortest / worst suit (if 4-4-4-1) which should determine the best fit for the partnership.

 

You can then bid game in the other suit with weak 7-? or cue-bid etc with a stronger hand looking for slam.

 

Steve

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2nt natural, something between 10 and 12.

Also your 1nt should be stronger then 6-9, more like 8-10.

Jumps to game should imo not be weak, just a good hand with a good suit (5 cards enough i think)

One hand i had problems with, is 5m 4M and about 10 hcp. last time i had this i cue bid, it seemed better then jump in either of the 2 suits i had.

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  • 3 weeks later...

I assume in both case RHO will pass.

 

In this case:

- If 2NT is a jump: invitational to 3NT

- If 2NT is NOT a jump = Lebensohl

 

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More interesting to me is the case where responder bids something.

Could anyone provide a list of:

 

1. what is supposed to be standard ?

2. what you think is most effective ?

 

Case a. New suit at 1 level

1X-(Dbl)-1Y-(2NT)

 

Case b. New suit at 2 level (non jump)

1X-(Dbl)-2Y-(2NT)

 

Case c. New suit at 2 level (weak jump)

1X-(Dbl)-2Y-(2NT)

 

Case d. New suit at 2 level (fitshowing jump)

1X-(Dbl)-2Y-(2NT)

 

Case e. Single raise

1X-(Dbl)-2X-(2NT)

 

Case f. Redouble

1X-(Dbl)-Rdbl-(2NT)

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