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I was wanting to hear the opinion for the following hand

:J

:Jxx

:AKJxxxx(maybe was with 9, dont recall)

:Kx

 

Red vs Green, Imps

Partner opens 1(11-15 5+, virtually all crappy 11 counts possible as well)-(p)

What is your bid?

Options:

1NT - One round forcing(no exceptions)

2(GF with )

3 (Invitational with long diamonds w/o supp for spades)

Other bids are out of question cause they have other meanings

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Short answer: 2

 

Long answer: I have a variant on Invitational jump shifts that works here.

 

Immediate 3 = mild invitational. Within the context of your 1 opening, that means circa 10 points.

 

Weak and very invitational one suiters go via 1NT. After 1-1n-2(balanced or clubs), responder bid 2 artificial 10-12 (all other bids weak). Opener bids:

 

2 = balanced 11-13

2 = clubs 11-13

Higher = other (it depends what you include in your 1NT opening what other bids will show)

 

Basically, here we bid 2 followed by 3 over 2 to show this hand, and opening only passes if very unsuitable. If partner shows the balanced hands we can just punt 3NT. It doesn't work so well if opener rebids 2, but that is not so common, and over a 2 rebid, 3 promises the very strong invite.

 

Invitational jump shifts define non GF hands as either invitational or less than that, but this way we get three ranges, thus allowing our top range to be a bit stronger.

Edited by PhilKing
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A side note, with a hand with crappy suit and relatively balanced(like those who open 1NT with 6322), bid 1NT and after 2NT(invite to 3N) so 3D is more like the part - if you help me out in diamonds then we have game, kinda like the 3m sound preempts which promise 2/3.

 

and a side topic, lets say part has 5431 (10-12) points and singleton diamond, Is 3nt even a good bet now? If diamonds work out, you go +600, if they don`t then we go for (200-400), expecting 110 for the other table?

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