mikl_plkcc Posted April 1, 2013 Report Share Posted April 1, 2013 [hv=sn=marmit&s=SATHK9632DA852CJ4&wn=samuelam&w=SK864HJT85DT4C652&nn=mikl_plkcc&n=S32HDKQJ976CAKQ97&en=Grott&e=SQJ975HAQ74D3CT83&d=s&v=b&b=39&a=1HP2DP3DP6DPPP&p=C3C4C6CADKD3D2D4D6S5DADTCJC2C7C8H2H5D7H4CKCTSTC5S2S7SAS4H3H8D9H7S3S9D5S6H6HTDJHQCQSJH9HJC9SQD8S8HKSKDQHA]400|300[/hv] The above deal has a grand slam in diamonds. From North's perspective, a fit in either minor and first-round controls in the remaining suits guarantee grand slam. I have a few questions to discuss: 1. If North bids 4♣ at the second round, will you interpret it as a cue-bid or the second suit? If it is cue-bid, the bidding may go follows:1♥ --- 2♦3♦ --- 4♣ (first round control in ♣)4♠ (first round control in ♠) --- 5♣ (second round control in ♣)5♥ (second round control in ♥) --- 5NT (trump ask)6♦ (1 of AKQ) --- 7♦ (That's all I need) I didn't bid 4♣ because I was afraid that it would be interpreted as a ♣ suit. If 3♥ or 4♥ was bid in place of 4♣, it is a delayed support in ♥ which shown exactly 3 ♥s and I couldn't bid. 2. Assume that North becomes the dealer. I would be tempted to open 2♣ and rebid 4[dl]. However, this kind of bidding is extremely bad with such kind of 2-suited hand. In this hand, if I opened 1♦, the bidding would go:1♦--- 1♥3♣ (forcing to game)--- 3♦4♦--- 4♠ (cuebid)5♣--- 5♥5NT--- 6♦7♦ This is still fine, however, imagine that South had only a ♦A and ♦ fit but nothing else. Now, the HCP distribution would become 19-21, and the 1♦ opening would be passed out if E-W were conservative and the small slam would be missed. If you open 2♣, you are betting that a minor suit fit exists, if not, a disaster happens doubled. (This kind of hand is great when a fit exists, even when partner has 0 HCPs, but is rubbish when no fit exists. Even 3NT is not possible when there is no fit and no stopper in one of the majors) 3. If I were East, I would bid 2♠. The ♠ fit has a high potential of interrupting N-S slam finding sequences. Although 3♠ is the limit in this deal, if one more spade is given to West, N-S attempt to cuebid would be blocked by West's 4♠ preemptive bid and the 7♦ is hard to find. However, on BBO, it was very strange that no table bid 7♦, and about half stopped at game! One table stopped at 5♠x, better than opponent's slam but worse than a game.http://www.bridgebase.com/myhands/hands.php?traveller=M-1363090584-41082961&username=mikl_plkcc Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lalldonn Posted April 1, 2013 Report Share Posted April 1, 2013 1. If North bids 4♣ at the second round, will you interpret it as a cue-bid or the second suit? If it is cue-bid, the bidding may go follows:1♥ --- 2♦3♦ --- 4♣ (first round control in ♣)4♠ (first round control in ♠) --- 5♣ (second round control in ♣)5♥ (second round control in ♥) --- 5NT (trump ask)6♦ (1 of AKQ) --- 7♦ (That's all I need)If we accept the bidding through 4♠ then it seems much simpler for responder to just bid blackwood over that since he knows his partner doesn't have the heart ace. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted April 1, 2013 Report Share Posted April 1, 2013 When you said you were afraid 4C would be interpreted as a suit, I decided this was an April Fools joke. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted April 1, 2013 Report Share Posted April 1, 2013 As josh says, once partner bypasses hert cuebid blackwood makes this very easy. The most important thing is that 3♦ must promise 4 card support. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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