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How strong should 1NT rebid be?


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I was thinking about this position in precison: 1(2+)-1NT, How strong should it be?, The classical 6-9 doesn't seem good, because since i know the idea of the bid was that when opener is strong lets say 18points then you can find game, but here that isn't the case with 1D being limited down to 15. I was thinking maybe using this rebid as 9-11 as invitational or something similar. This allows to stay to play 1NT when opener doesn't want game, and still allows us to find out openers shape if he is max or doesn't want to play NT, With the weaker 0-8 hands, maybe pass w/o a 4card major or 6/5 card minor, so that means that we bid almost always anyway. Any opinions?
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I was thinking about this position in precison: 1(2+)-1NT, How strong should it be?, The classical 6-9 doesn't seem good, because since i know the idea of the bid was that when opener is strong lets say 18points then you can find game, but here that isn't the case with 1D being limited down to 15. I was thinking maybe using this rebid as 9-11 as invitational or something similar. This allows to stay to play 1NT when opener doesn't want game, and still allows us to find out openers shape if he is max or doesn't want to play NT, With the weaker 0-8 hands, maybe pass w/o a 4card major or 6/5 card minor, so that means that we bid almost always anyway. Any opinions?

 

*** Agree.

Having a limited 1D opener, responder must both find a

likely 2M,3m partial AND announce game still possible.

*** The ambiguous shapes in pre-1D opener stiffles

preempts based on fit, at least until next round.

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The precision 1 opening usually has as a subset a balanced hand of a certain range, for example 11-13 balanced. The 1NT response usually shows a hand without a four card or longer major that would want to play 1NT, but not higher, opposite this balanced hand type.
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If 1 is 11-15 including 11-13 balanced then 1NT should be 6-11 and opener passes with weak balanced.2NT then 12-13 INV against 11-13 bal.If opener has unbal hand he usually bids 2 or 2 and responder could raise or bid 2NT with 10-11.Problem hand is 14-15 4441, with that u could bid 2and 2are open for max and 6/4x suit.3 for 55max.Covers all hands.
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1NT shows a hand which wants opener to pass with a balanced 11-13. So basically you can have up to 11HCP to respond 1NT.

I agree its important to have the balanced hand in 1 able to pass after 1-1N to avoid getting too high by inviting opposite non-accepting responders. This presents a problem if you play a weak NT where 1 includes 13-15 balanced. My solution to this was to play that

 

1 9-15 2+, could be 13-15 balanced

 

1N 6-10 no 4M (in principle 0-10). Opener bids on only with an unbalanced hand

2 11+ natural, no 4M unless GF, could be 11-12 balanced (after 2 showing a bare and unbalanced min, responder can pass)

2 11+ inverted and natural, no 4M

2N 13-14 balanced no 4M

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1NT shows a hand which wants opener to pass with a balanced 11-13. So basically you can have up to 11HCP to respond 1NT.

 

So 1NT can be 0 - 11, at least NV (since NV undoubled it's better to play 1NT than to defend it :)

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So 1NT can be 0 - 11, at least NV (since NV undoubled it's better to play 1NT than to defend it :)

How'd you guess? I developed my finer NT range resolution and conventions when I bid 1N on a bust and partner raised it with his balanced 15 (our NT rebid by opener is 13-15). That didn't end well.

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How'd you guess? I developed my finer NT range resolution and conventions when I bid 1N on a bust and partner raised it with his balanced 15 (our NT rebid by opener is 13-15). That didn't end well.

Hehe, that's why I don't play weak/mini NT when I play precision.

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