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Another Cue Bid question


Oceanss

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Hi

 

Playing IMPs, if auction goes:

(1) 1 (2) ?

 

having in mind that 2S would be relatively weak hand with spade support, what's the difference between 3D and 3S answers?

Could it be LTT (3S would show 4+ support?)

 

Specifically, holding Axxx Kxx xx QJxx what would you bid, and how vulnerability may influence your bid?

 

Thanks : )

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This is a slightly tricky question to answer because it depends on far along you are. The traditional way for intermediates to play is for 3 to be a good raise and for 3 to be a weak raise with extra spade length. However, most beginners are taught that 3 is an invitational raise here. If this is your understanding then 3 is just played as a general game force and does not promise spade support.
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Answering a bit more of your question, I would say that, 3 shows 4 card support but is not invitational. It is weaker than that. A absolute beginner might play 3 invitational, but 3 is much better, as it is an otherwise unwanted bid. This then frees the 3 to be pre-emptive, so would be 4 card (LTT).

 

Without discussion, 3 may be 3 or 4 card support - I don't know what is taught. If you think the sequence (1) 1 (2) 2NT is natural and invitational, then leave it at that. However, 1 is rather undefined in strength, and 2NT is rarely a good place to play when they have an obvious supported suit to lead. If 2NT is therefore a spare bid, then to extend the LTT concept you can use both 2NT and 3 as spade support game invitational hands, one to show 3 card support and the other to show 4 card support. (The former would need to be stronger in terms of hcp.)

 

Your specific hand is a 3 bid for me, and I would not make any change for vulnerability or scoring method.

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