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I thought this one was interssting


Hanoi5

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Mp's, red:

 

Axx

AKQTxx

QJx

Q

 

1-1NT

???

 

Would you show the solid suit and game strength, invite in hearts or show a GF hand that wants to play in hearts (by means of an artificial new suit or forcing bid)?

 

Incidentally, how do you show each of those?

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If we give partner a K and Q, it would seem we are likely to make 10 tricks. I'll choose the J/S to 3 and pay off if pard responded on QJJ. The upside is if pard holds the key HCP ( say,Kx xxx Kxxx {cl]Axxx or the like). We might be able to sniff out the slam.
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Looks like a 3 rebid to me. Our G.F. holding a sixth heart would be 3NT over 1NT expecting a pull to 4H with 2-card support, or a 4m cue with an original 3-card limit raise.

 

If we want to insist on a heart game over the 1N response, we can bid game in hearts.

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If we give partner a K and Q, it would seem we are likely to make 10 tricks. I'll choose the J/S to 2 and pay off if pard responded on QJJ. The upside is if pard holds the key HCP ( say,Kx xxx Kxxx {cl]Axxx or the like). We might be able to sniff out the slam.

 

This is matchpoints; you don't want to risk getting the dummy in 2.

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This is matchpoints; you don't want to risk getting the dummy in 2.

 

Steve's post said "jump shift to 2", which might mean "reverse to 2", "jump shift to 3", or "jump shift to 3". I agree that 2 would be about as bad as possible!

 

For me, I'm happy treating this as a dead maximum 3 rebid.

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I'd force to game at imps, if red, but this is mps, where reaching 45% game contracts gets you a 45% score in the long run, and I've never seen that to be a good thing.

 

 

I like to use a process of elimination in these situations.

 

3N: no. Close but no. It shows more or less this heart suit, but I think it is a slight overbid and slight misbid. Partner shouldn't be pulling routinely with xx in hearts. We should be delivering a 6322 type of hand, and he can 'count' 6 heart tricks with xx, and not be worried that we're laying down a stiff on the side.

 

3: no. The hand is just too good for that. It would be a maximum without the club Q, and while that card may be wasted, we shouldn't disount its value in notrump, where it could turn partner's mediocre holding into gold.

 

3: ugh. An overbid and a huge misbid. We could easily get to the wrong spot.

 

2N: why not? It is invitational, showing about 17-18. Partner will raise on decent 7 counts, opposite which 3N is likely to be better than 4 if he has xx in hearts or the equivalent. It shows a higher range than 3, and yet is not forcing.

 

It suggests only 5 hearts, so it is a distortion, but it seems to me that if we slide a small heart into clubs, which happens to me a lot, then it is the perfect description :P

 

So I choose 2N as the call that best conveys this hand, albeit imperfectly.

 

Incidentally, when the posters seems split between 3N and 3, that suggests that the true value of the hand probably lies somewhere inbetween those valuations, and 2N is the only call that does.

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After bidding 2NT you should be delivering (17)18-19 with a 5332, and not necessarily with such a source of tricks. I find it a bigger distortion than 3NT which should indeed deliver a 6322 rather than a 6331. After 3NT however, responder shouldn't bid 4 any time he has xx right? Although the Q may be worthless, it can also help to stop the suit. This is the same for a 2NT or 3NT rebid imo. With a small singleton I wouldn't be so happy to bid 3NT though. :)
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i prefer an immediate 2s bid --- for several reasons

1. it might be a great lead inhibitor

2. keeps the bidding low

3. allows p to appreciate spade honors more than usual

4. there is no reason this hand cant be played in 6d even and

bids like 3h 3n and 2n all make slam a tough bidding problem.

5. with any luck we may be able to pattern out with 3d later if its

available to further help p decide on where to play.

6. 3n is still available if we need it.

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