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Phil

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2NT. It is not perfect, but without specialized tools to handle hands like this, it is the only reasonable option.
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JT of hearts and 4432 is a bad example hand imo. JT of hearts is quite NTy and is not like 2 small. With a hand like AKx xx Axx AKxxx I am on board with reversing though and do that in real life though people think I'm weird so I'm kinda with you :P

 

Part of the problem here also (on top of JT of hearts) is 2C in inadequate (partner passing is usually going to be bad imo), and 3C seems ridiculous.

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JT of hearts and 4432 is a bad example hand imo. JT of hearts is quite NTy and is not like 2 small. With a hand like AKx xx Axx AKxxx I am on board with reversing though and do that in real life though people think I'm weird so I'm kinda with you :P

 

Part of the problem here also (on top of JT of hearts) is 2C in inadequate (partner passing is usually going to be bad imo), and 3C seems ridiculous.

I wonder if I could get away with using "NTy" in Words with Friends?

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Yeah JT isn't a poster child for 2 but it was the first board and I felt like experimenting.

 

It actually helped us get to a good slam across from Axxx Ax QTxxx Qx.

 

My partner was funny after we had a 71%. He played a number of years ago with a popular DC player. After they scored a 230 he was asked, "if you had played perfect what would you have scored?"

 

190 :P

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I just rebid 2NT always and keep things simple. They didn't overcall my weak suit so maybe the length is on my right and they won't lead it if I don't pinpoint for them. Also if I reverse and then partner rebids his major and I show three-card support in it, I don't want him to assume I'm short in the fourth suit.

 

Jlall I had no idea you do this! I was gonna say Marshall Miles is the only one I know (knew) of who rebids the other minor on hands like this.

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I'm wondering how it went? ( to get to 6D ? )

 

KQx JT AJ9x AKJx

 

Axxx Ax QTxxx Qx

 

1D - 1S

2C - 2H! ( 4th suit GF ... or do you play xyz ? )

??

 

2 - 3

4 - 4

5 - 6

 

XYZ does not apply here.

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It actually helped us get to a good slam across from Axxx Ax QTxxx Qx.

Wouldn't you have got there after a 2NT rebid too? Responder shows a slam-try with diamond support, opener cue-bids clubs, responder cue-bids hearts, and opener drives slam.

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Wouldn't you have got there after a 2NT rebid too? Responder shows a slam-try with diamond support, opener cue-bids clubs, responder cue-bids hearts, and opener drives slam.

We discussed that although had a disagreement over:

 

1 1

2N 3*

3 3N

 

* transfer

 

He said it was a mild slam try. I thought it was a choice of games. Even with my interpretation we migh get there after I cue 4 although he has no idea how valuable his Q] is.

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I'm wondering how it went? ( to get to 6D ? )

 

KQx JT AJ9x AKJx

 

Axxx Ax QTxxx Qx

 

1D - 1S

2C - 2H! ( 4th suit GF ... or do you play xyz ? )

??

Let me try one using Italian cuebids -- the rules were posted by Phil in 2009 :

 

1. Cue bid any A, K , singleton or void. Some partnerships do not cue shortness, some do not cue shortness at their first opportunity, and yet others do not cue shortness in partner's suits.

 

2. To cue in partner's ( side ) suit, you need the A, K, ... or Q.

 

3. To cue your own ( side ) suit, you need 2/3 top honors.

 

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

 

1D - 1S

2C - 2H! ( 4th suit GF )

2S - 3D ( cancels interest in )

3S ( cheapest Ctrl cue; A, K, or Q in partner's side-suit )

.... - 4C ( A, K, or Q in partner's side-suit )

4D! ( Minorwood, since suit agreement on the 3-level )

.... - 5C ( 4th step = 2 + Q )

6D ( missing a key card )

Edited by TWO4BRIDGE
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KQx JT AJ9x AKJx

 

1 - 1

?

I'd just bid 2NT showing 18-19 balanced.

 

If this is considered a problem hand, then opener should've foreseen this and opened 1 (so he can reverse and stay low).

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We discussed that although had a disagreement over:

 

1 1

2N 3*

3 3N

 

* transfer

 

He said it was a mild slam try. I thought it was a choice of games. Even with my interpretation we migh get there after I cue 4 although he has no idea how valuable his Q] is.

I think responder is too strong to bid a non-forcing 3NT, mild slam try or not.

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I'd just bid 2NT showing 18-19 balanced.

 

If this is considered a problem hand, then opener should've foreseen this and opened 1 (so he can reverse and stay low).

If they'd have thought even further ahead, they could have agreed to play transfer Walsh in response to 1 and had a 1-level rebid on this sort of hand without distorting their minor suit lengths :)

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Yeah JT isn't a poster child for 2 but it was the first board and I felt like experimenting.

 

It actually helped us get to a good slam across from Axxx Ax QTxxx Qx.

 

My partner was funny after we had a 71%. He played a number of years ago with a popular DC player. After they scored a 230 he was asked, "if you had played perfect what would you have scored?"

 

190 :P

 

Partner has 5-card support for your first bid suit and knows of at least a combined 30-count after your 2NT rebid. How hard can it be to get to slam? (If you can't think of anything better, bidding 6D would work, it's the most likely final contract).

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