Hanoi5 Posted March 10, 2013 Report Share Posted March 10, 2013 Imp pairs, R vs W: ♠AT6xx♥Ax♦K♣A8xxx Pa-(Pa)-1♠-(2♥)3♥-(Pa)-??? Is 4♣ free? Should you just bid 4♠ and not dream about slam? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted March 10, 2013 Report Share Posted March 10, 2013 It takes the perfect hands for slam (doubleton club, ♦A, 4 trumps, 3 keycards) I would stay out of this one because after 4♣-4♦-4♠ it kinda looks like ♥K is the golden card, when it is useless. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lesh Posted March 10, 2013 Report Share Posted March 10, 2013 I dont know whether it is just me but I will just sign off in 4♠. I prefer a plus score :D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rhm Posted March 11, 2013 Report Share Posted March 11, 2013 Am I alone playing the cuebid as having a lower limit (game invitational) but no upper limit, in which case 4♣ is automatic?4♣ shows a hand, which would accept a game invitation but shows a hand, which is suitable for slam should partner have more. It does not necessarily promise a hand which wants to be in slam if partner is minimum for his cuebid Rainer Herrmann Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mr1303 Posted March 11, 2013 Report Share Posted March 11, 2013 Partner is a passed hand, which I think makes a big difference. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted March 11, 2013 Report Share Posted March 11, 2013 4♠ for me, partner is a passed hand and he needs a singleton in a rounded suit for slam to be good. This means he has 8-10 HCPs. So he can hardly have all the cards that we need. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rmnka447 Posted March 12, 2013 Report Share Posted March 12, 2013 It's a Pass for me, too. Partner's a passed hand and seems to need too much to make slam feasible. A secondary analysis via LTC sort of confirms this. Your hand is a 6 loser hand. Partner advertises a limit raise hand which is normally an 8 loser hand. A combined 14 loser count between the two hands points toward you making 10 tricks on the hand. Even if partner's hand improves to the equivalent of an opener -- 7 losers -- LTC points toward the hand making only 11 tricks. Change the stiff ♦ K into a baby stiff and replace a small ♠ with ♠ K, then you may think more positively about slam and make a try. Your hand has improved to a 5 loser, so slam becomes more of a possibility. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted March 13, 2013 Author Report Share Posted March 13, 2013 ♠K9xxx♥xxxx♦AQx♣x This was partner's hand. No splinter. I suppose over 4♣ it is easier to get to slam. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted March 13, 2013 Report Share Posted March 13, 2013 ♠K9xxx♥xxxx♦AQx♣x This was partner's hand. No splinter. I suppose over 4♣ it is easier to get to slam. So 3 ♥ says: I have a good spade raise4 ♣ says: I have a GF spade raise with a singelton/void in clubs. How can someone choose 3 ♥ which desrcibes less of the hand? OTOW: By using ser/nonser 3NT I can bid 4 ♣ with openers hand too. But I would not, it is just a little light for me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted March 13, 2013 Report Share Posted March 13, 2013 It's a Pass for me, too.You will struggle to get away with just 1 off :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted March 14, 2013 Report Share Posted March 14, 2013 ♠K9xxx♥xxxx♦AQx♣x This was partner's hand. No splinter. I suppose over 4♣ it is easier to get to slam. No splinter in system or did he think this hand doesn't worth a splinter ? Did 3♥ promise more than 3 card support ? @ Rainer; What extras are you expecting from a passed pd ? Kxx xxx AQxx Kxx is this enough extras for a passed hand ? 5 level is not a picnic walk if trumps do not behave. Does your method ask extra trumps too besides values (or perhaps 3♥ promosed 4+ trumps )? Or did you just miss he was coming from pass ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted March 14, 2013 Report Share Posted March 14, 2013 Two separate subjects: 1st=the failure to splinter...That is what stopped the slam. 2nd=4C by opener...We don't consider 4C to be a slam try here. It would be our choice because we want to prepare for more heart competition and bring pard into the 5-level decision. Yes, more heart competition is possible even though righty was silent over the 3H cue (which partner would make with a different hand. I know others disagree about 4C not being a slam try. But a 1-bid facing a L.R. by a passed hand is so rarely on for slam, it isn't worth the exploration. Partner won't have the given hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOGIC Posted March 14, 2013 Report Share Posted March 14, 2013 Suddenly the forum of fit jumpers and fit non jumpers does not play one of the most common fit jump auctions as one, they take it as a splinter. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted March 14, 2013 Report Share Posted March 14, 2013 Or, we play it as a splinter. Accidentally useful on this hand, but I am sure that is resulting and there are many more hands where the fit jump works out better. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted March 14, 2013 Report Share Posted March 14, 2013 I at least though that club short was possible, but I though it made no difference to doubleton since we won't be able to ruff more than twice with partner's 4 trump holding. Never saw the 5th trump coming :/. Now somebody please suggest 3NT as mathe asking for shortness :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted March 14, 2013 Report Share Posted March 14, 2013 Suddenly the forum of fit jumpers and fit non jumpers does not play one of the most common fit jump auctions as one, they take it as a splinter. But who cares what we are playing, I understood Hanoi in a way that he had splinters avaiable, but his partner did not use one... But mabye he meant: No splinter avaiable... In this case, his partners bid makes more sense. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted March 14, 2013 Report Share Posted March 14, 2013 But who cares what we are playing, I understood Hanoi in a way that he had splinters avaiable, but his partner did not use one... But mabye he meant: No splinter avaiable... In this case, his partners bid makes more sense. This is why i asked what he meant, was it not available due to system or did responder think his hand wasn't suitable for splinter ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted March 14, 2013 Report Share Posted March 14, 2013 I know others disagree about 4C not being a slam try. But a 1-bid facing a L.R. by a passed hand is so rarely on for slam, it isn't worth the exploration. Partner won't have the given hand. Partner doesn't even need as much as he has, you still make the grand without Q♦ a lot of the time. A 1 bid opposite a passed hand LR makes slam more often than you think, Kxxx, xxx, Axxx, Kx for example is a fine slam opposite what you have, which would still be a 1 bid if you had QJ♠ or QJ♣ as well. We would bid 2N as the 4+ card LR which would leave more space if opps shut up, 4♣ would be a fit bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted March 14, 2013 Report Share Posted March 14, 2013 4C isn't a splinter, nor a fit jump. It's Gerber. :P 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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