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Forcing pass agreement


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Dear experts,

 

What is your good practice on determine if a situation is forcing pass? We are trying to fine tune our system on that but finding everyone has different opinions and the variation is huge.

 

The following are what we have right now:

1. 2/1 or other already GF sequence

2. Cue bid showing high card raise

3. Red vs White, after we bid game but got overcall.

 

Thanks in advance for your opinion.

 

Lync

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bridge with dan website

 

 

go to that link, search for Roboson/Segal notes, download it. It has a very well described set of rules for when pass is forcing or not. If you haven't seen this, it is a pdf that is a book entitled partnership bidding in bridge (or something similiar).

 

Read reviews of this book in the forum below on bridge material review or search this forum for roboson or segal or better yet "partnership bidding in bridge"

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1. 2/1 or other already GF sequence

Yes, at any level, ie below or above game. Extend this to any bid in other sequences that shows game values, but not a distributional or pre-emptive bid.

 

2. Cue bid showing high card raise

Only to the level to which your bid is forcing. If I make a bid that is forcing to the 3 level, I don't play a forcing pass if they interfere at a higher level. eg 1 (1) 2 (3) pass is not forcing as I promised only enough values for 3 (ie invitational).

 

But if you make a bid that shows support and is forcing to the 4 level (you are already at the 4 level) eg 1 (2) 3, then forcing pass applies

 

3. Red vs White, after we bid game but got overcall.

I would do this regardless of vulnerability, as in rule (1), if the game is not a distributional raise.

 

Be aware, that having decided your rules, it affects your judgement of how to bid a hand. If you decide that a fit jump to the 4 level (eg 1 (1) 4) sets up a forcing pass if next hand bids 4, then you have to be much more careful/restrictive in making such bids, and will make them less often. I prefer to say a fit jump is a pre-emptive raise, so does not create a forcing pass situation, and bid it more frequently.

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My agreements on FP situations were given to me by a mentor several years back:

 

A forcing pass is in effect:


  •  
  • When partner's last bid was a forcing pass and the opponents have not jumped
  • When we are forced to a level, and they intervene below (but not at) this level
  • If we have bid or forced to game on power
  • When we have cooperated in doubling or redoubling for penalties
  • By other agreement, including
    • (weak 1NT) -- dbl -- (non-jump run) --
    • (weak 1NT) -- pass -- (stayman/xfer) -- dbl --
    • 1x -- (dbl) -- rdbl -- (pass or 1y) --
    • 1x -- (two suited 2x) -- dbl -- (bid) --
    • 1x -- (two suited 2NT) -- dbl -- (bid) --

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I agree with much of what is posted above, but the key is to have you and partner on the same page, that is in many ways more important than the agreements themselves.

 

Examples we use that are not necessarily standard:

 

When we double 1N for pens - passes from either side of 2m are forcing but not 2M

1M-2N (limit or better)/1m-2m (inverted 10+) - passes are forcing below 3 of our fit and above 3N but not of 3 of a higher suit

Where we've "guaranteed" at least half the pack and both hands are unlimited, passes are forcing above 3N

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I use mainly your first 2, however I ditched #3 after losing to a redoubled 5 with ovetrick some years ago when I bid 5 red on white wich would had been just -200

 

 

 

so

 

1. We make a GF bid

2. We cuebid to show inv+ values and fit

3. We redouble to show values

4. We double a conventional overcall to show values.

 

 

 

There is a 5th wich reads something like: nither opponent is strong and they are obviously bidding to defend our game. Also if we bid 3NT on power (nobody opened a preempt)

 

Oh I forgot also when thye run from a doubled contract.

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