mr1303 Posted March 6, 2013 Report Share Posted March 6, 2013 [hv=pc=n&s=s62hj962d9863cqjt]133|100[/hv]Bidding went: Pass Pass 1D Pass1H 2S 3H 3D You now decide to pass quickly and the bidding proceeds Pass 3S ? Partner holds[hv=pc=n&n=sa9ha854daqj74c54]133|100[/hv]Does partner have UI that suggests anything here? What do you call as North? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted March 6, 2013 Report Share Posted March 6, 2013 I don't think there's any UI from accepting the IB. You said you "passed quickly" -- there could be UI from your haste, if it's noticeably quicker than your usual passes. As North I pass. I already invited game, and partner didn't accept. He didn't even rebid 3♥ when the IB gave him the opportunity. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vampyr Posted March 6, 2013 Report Share Posted March 6, 2013 Does partner have UI that suggests anything here? What do you call as North? Since you are permitted to have agreements here, no action can cause UI. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted March 6, 2013 Report Share Posted March 6, 2013 Yep. If there is any UI, it is regarding the tempo. Partner is authorized to know that when make a call allowed in the laws you have a reason to make that call. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ggwhiz Posted March 6, 2013 Report Share Posted March 6, 2013 I once had an auction where pard opened 1♠ and rho overcalled 1♥. I accepted the call and bid 1♠ on 3 pieces and a 3 count and that was considered fair ball at the time. I'm not sure if that was correct but why not? The infraction is theirs. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted March 6, 2013 Report Share Posted March 6, 2013 Of course, it is o.k. We have been there IRL and on these fora. 40B3 refers to varying one's agreements after an irregularity. It does not probibit having agreements when none would be possible but for the irregularity. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted March 7, 2013 Report Share Posted March 7, 2013 Had one come up last week. I was playing with an infrequent partner (so we have little in the way of partnership experience). I opened, LHO made an insufficient overcall. After we called the director and he gave her the options, she chose to accept the IB and then jumped to game. If the auction had gone normally, I'd have treated the jump as weak/preemptive. But I assumed that since she chose to accept the IB, she had some other meaning in mind, and made some kind of slam try. But no, that wasn't what she was doing, she had the weak hand. I guess she figured that she was going to bid 4 anyway, so it didn't matter whether the overcall was sufficient or not. And now that I think about it, this is probably right. If she wanted to show a good hand, she should allow the IB and then make a cue bid -- it would allow her to cue one level lower, giving us more room to describe our hands. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted March 7, 2013 Report Share Posted March 7, 2013 Had one come up last week. I was playing with an infrequent partner (so we have little in the way of partnership experience). I opened, LHO made an insufficient overcall. After we called the director and he gave her the options, she chose to accept the IB and then jumped to game. If the auction had gone normally, I'd have treated the jump as weak/preemptive. But I assumed that since she chose to accept the IB, she had some other meaning in mind, and made some kind of slam try. But no, that wasn't what she was doing, she had the weak hand. I guess she figured that she was going to bid 4 anyway, so it didn't matter whether the overcall was sufficient or not. And now that I think about it, this is probably right. If she wanted to show a good hand, she should allow the IB and then make a cue bid -- it would allow her to cue one level lower, giving us more room to describe our hands.1M (1m) ? Accept and then bid 3m for mixed raise? Accept and then bid 3M for weak raise (even if it would be L.R. with interference)? All kinds of things to consider for next time. And if we screw it up, we can try L23 :rolleyes: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted March 7, 2013 Report Share Posted March 7, 2013 Actually, now that I think about it, she might have only bid 3M, and my mistake was in taking it as a limit raise (which it would be with no interference) rather than a weak raise, and I went to game. I was so fixated on trying to figure out why she accepted, that I didn't really think about all the other bids she could have made after accepting. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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