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ArtK78

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12 board match, IMPs converted to VPs.

 

Playing a light opening system, in which the opening bid promises 10 HCP (1NT is 10-12), the following auction unfolds:

 

[hv=pc=n&e=s8632hadaj8762cj7&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1hp1sp2dp3dp3np?]133|200[/hv]

 

1 is natural. A 2/1 in diamonds is not game forcing, but would have shown more values than this hand.

2 is natural but does not show any extra values, so opener could still have a 10 HCP hand.

 

1) In this context, do you agree with 3?

2) After partner bids game, do you take any further action? If so, what is it?

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3 is a huge underbid, even if partner has a 10 count 100% of the time. I would bid 3.

 

I would not sit for 3NT. We could be cold for slam with 3NT down. x Kxxxx Kxxx ATx is a decent slam and partner would pass 3. Give him the red queens as well and we are down in 3NT. And don't tell me partner would not bid it with a stiff spade - I have seen it 100 times.

 

I will have to manufacture some sort of recovery shot now. 4! If partner has 11 points, maybe he will cue 4. :P

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If opener had a 10 count surely he wouldn't bid 3NT?

Indeed he would not.

 

3 is a huge underbid, even if partner has a 10 count 100% of the time. I would bid 3.

 

I would not sit for 3NT. We could be cold for slam with 3NT down. x Kxxxx Kxxx ATx is a decent slam and partner would pass 3. Give him the red queens as well and we are down in 3NT. And don't tell me partner would not bid it with a stiff spade - I have seen it 100 times.

 

I will have to manufacture some sort of recovery shot now. 4! If partner has 11 points, maybe he will cue 4. :P

You are on the right track. Except that you seem to want partner to supply information to you, when instead you should be providing information to partner.

 

At the table, I bid 5. But, as my partner pointed out, as long as I am going to bid 5, how could it be wrong to cue bid the A along the way? This is all partner needs, as his hand is:

 

J

Jxxxx

KQxx

AKT

 

He will bid 6, which rolls in on a club lead, and which isn't difficult at all on a non-diamond lead. On a diamond lead, you will have to establish the hearts, or, if that doesn't work, take the club finesse.

 

This hand was a push at +420.

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, how could it be wrong to cue bid the A along the way?

Depending on the likelihood of playing 4.... From wrong to very wrong :)

 

On the other hand.. what were you thinking about Roland? partner's gotta have short spades for his bidding, you fouled me with your double post passing 3NT as it it was obvious.

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I would bid 4 with xxxx KQ AQxxx xx.

 

Under my generic rules 4 is still offering - particularly since I have denied a slam try already.

 

On the other hand.. what were you thinking about Roland? partner's gotta have short spades for his bidding, you fouled me with your double post passing 3NT as it it was obvious.

 

Perhaps you should have agreed with him twice. Two positives mean a negative or is it the other way round?

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Indeed he would not.

 

 

You are on the right track. Except that you seem to want partner to supply information to you, when instead you should be providing information to partner.

 

At the table, I bid 5. But, as my partner pointed out, as long as I am going to bid 5, how could it be wrong to cue bid the A along the way? This is all partner needs, as his hand is:

 

J

Jxxxx

KQxx

AKT

 

He will bid 6, which rolls in on a club lead, and which isn't difficult at all on a non-diamond lead. On a diamond lead, you will have to establish the hearts, or, if that doesn't work, take the club finesse.

 

This hand was a push at +420.

I don't understand how 4 can be a slam try after both players have bid NF. This just offers opener to play 4 or 5.

 

After this auction and partner's 3NT, I'd just pass.

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