kgr Posted February 25, 2013 Report Share Posted February 25, 2013 [hv=pc=n&s=s84hkqjt2dqj5caq5&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1n(15-17)p2c(puppet%20to%202D)p2d(forced)d2s(5cH%2C%20limit+)p3c(Max%2C%20no%20H-Fit)p4np5cp6nppp]133|200[/hv]Bidding to 3C showed:North: Max 15-17NT without 3c♥South: 5c♥, no 4c♠, limit+Do you agree with 4NT & 6NT?4NT was understood by both players as Quantitative5♣ is max with 4c♣ (probably 4=2=3=4 or 3=2=4=4) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lesh Posted February 25, 2013 Report Share Posted February 25, 2013 Sounds reasonable :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted February 25, 2013 Report Share Posted February 25, 2013 The hand that worries me is A10x, Ax, AK10x, J10xx where 6♥ needs hearts 4-2 or hearts 5-1 and the club finesse, but 6N requires the club finesse regardless of the heart break on a spade lead (and is going minus several if it fails). AJxx, Ax, Axx, KJxx is similar. Can I retransfer to hearts over 3♣ intending to then keycard, in which case if partner has 3 aces and a K can 6N ever be better than 6♥, particularly if I'm playing teams. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted February 25, 2013 Author Report Share Posted February 25, 2013 The hand that worries me is A10x, Ax, AK10x, J10xx where 6♥ needs hearts 4-2 or hearts 5-1 and the club finesse, but 6N requires the club finesse regardless of the heart break on a spade lead (and is going minus several if it fails). AJxx, Ax, Axx, KJxx is similar. Can I retransfer to hearts over 3♣ intending to then keycard, in which case if partner has 3 aces and a K can 6N ever be better than 6♥, particularly if I'm playing teams.Yes, 4♦ will be understood as re-transfer and 4NT is then RKC. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted February 25, 2013 Report Share Posted February 25, 2013 I'd rather have seen the auction posted without RHO's final pass, or perhaps with RHO doubling :P We can infer from the auction that RHO wasn't doubling 2♦ on the AK of that suit, which would otherwise be a possibility (altho one wonders why he doubled when he was probably going to be on lead), and that if we are missing 2 Aces, they aren't in the same hand. Given that there was no final double, I suspect we've reached a contract with at least some play, unless we are off split Aces. It may be cold, but as noted below, I suspect it is slightly against the odds. Had we not known how the auction would end, I'd be very worried about reaching 6N. S already knew N was maximum and yet made a quantitative 4N. I am not sure how finely calibrated S expected N's micrometer to be, but it seems reasonable to me that N ought to be looking at his diamond holding when deciding whether the maximum he already showed warranted acceptance. I assume from the OP that N has denied 5♣ earlier, since I confess that when I first read the OP, with 5♣ not highlighted, I assumed it showed 5♣, as it would with me (maybe 6♣ would show 5?) I am ambivalent about the final contract. AQxx Ax Axx Kxxx is an incredibly control rich maximum and requires either a spade hook or clubs to break. And he doesn't need all of that: KQJx Ax Kxx KJxx is a wonderful hand with zero play for slam. On balance, I am not happy with the contract if I were to ignore RHO's pass, which I could not have known was happening when I committed to 6N. I would expect it to fail slightly more than half the time. I'd be happier, expecting success slightly more than half the time, had RHO not doubled 2♦. I'm concerned that we are off a major suit A and that we need to score 2 diamond tricks without losing one. Without the double of 2♦, I'd think that was, if needed, 50-50. With the double, the finesse, if needed, will surely fail. Our methods smack of sophistication, and I am not saying my methods would do any better (tho I used to play a relay stayman that would have allowed me, by the 5-level, to know exact shape, and the number and location of all A/K/Q holdings...now that would be nice here). But these sophisticated methods got us to 6N in an auction on which the opening leader might have held AK of his suit or 2 Aces. I don't like that. At all. Edit: I wouldn't look for slam in hearts either: rho doubled 2♦ on K empty or A empty, and not much outside, on an auction in which I could well have been able to redouble, and when he rated to be on lead. I would expect a 6 card suit, and I'd fear A and a diamond ruff....I'd definitely bid 6N if I knew we were off one keycard. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted February 25, 2013 Report Share Posted February 25, 2013 Edit: I wouldn't look for slam in hearts either: rho doubled 2♦ on K empty or A empty, and not much outside, on an auction in which I could well have been able to redouble, and when he rated to be on lead. I would expect a 6 card suit, and I'd fear A and a diamond ruff....I'd definitely bid 6N if I knew we were off one keycard.I didn't see the X of 2♦, I think if partner has 3 aces I definitely want to be in hearts, if he only has 2 then NT is better. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
wank Posted February 25, 2013 Report Share Posted February 25, 2013 2dXX +1 = 760 2DXX + 2 = 960 it seems a little churlish not to have explored this possibility whilst looking at qjx of diamonds and knowing to at least 30 HCP between the 2 hands. it's a rather safer way to make one's money than trying for 6nt. if the doubler really had anything scary - Akxxxxx or some such - he'd most likely have found something to do over 1NT, whatever his methods. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
madongjun Posted February 26, 2013 Report Share Posted February 26, 2013 After 1NT ,2D trans to ♥,then through RKC ,finally contract was 6♥ or 6NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted February 26, 2013 Author Report Share Posted February 26, 2013 2dXX +1 = 760 2DXX + 2 = 960 it seems a little churlish not to have explored this possibility whilst looking at qjx of diamonds and knowing to at least 30 HCP between the 2 hands. it's a rather safer way to make one's money than trying for 6nt. if the doubler really had anything scary - Akxxxxx or some such - he'd most likely have found something to do over 1NT, whatever his methods.RDBL is undefined in our system. But we can still bid our hand like the DBL didn't occur, so RDBL should logically be business. I considered it for a moment, but preferred to keep the bidding clear for my partner. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted February 26, 2013 Author Report Share Posted February 26, 2013 Thanks all for the answers!I don't know partners exact hand (4cS or 4cD). We both overbid.But I (South) should have stopped looking for slam after the DBL. And should have tried RDBL.S♠ & ♦K were off-site[hv=pc=n&n=skqxxhaxdaxxcktxx&s=s84hkqjt2dqj5caq5&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1n(15-17)p2c(puppet%20to%202D)p2d(forced)d2s(5cH%2C%20limit+)p3c(Max%2C%20no%20H-Fit)p4np5cp6nppp]233|200[/hv]Bidding to 3C showed:North: Max 15-17NT without 3c♥South: 5c♥, no 4c♠, limit+Do you agree with 4NT & 6NT?4NT was understood by both players as Quantitative5♣ is max with 4c♣ (probably 4=2=3=4 or 3=2=4=4) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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