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Assign the blame.


Lord Molyb

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How would you distribute the blame here? Do you give any blame to either player? Did south play it poorly or was he just unlucky?

IMPs.

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South should duck the first heart I think ... no switch is scary. Probably won't be enough to make though, considering the diamond situation.

 

North's hand isn't so hot, I might not open it, but can't really fault him for doing so either. South's 3NT is risky with the thin heart stopper, but looking at both hands, this is the contract we want to be in.

 

I say no blame, when you play bridge sometimes you go down. Not vul, not doubled, probably could make it on a 3-2 diamond break.

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No blame, other than not having methods for north to declare. Some forego the splinter for a minor and would play 3 here transfers partner to 3NT.

 

Bill if you duck the heart you give up your contract when east has Ax of diamonds.

Is it right to cater to that specific holding?

 

 

 

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Is it right to cater to that specific holding?

Yes? East overcalled so he is more likely to have strength and more likely to be short in diamonds than west. And it also caters to east having AJT or AJ9/AJ8 of diamonds (assuming he won't put in the jack on the first one) and the king of clubs. Ducking gives up any time east has the diamond ace, and is nullo if hearts are 1-6.

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Bidding 3NT in this auction is IMO a commitment; it is hard to play in another spot thereafter. 3NT would be the proper bid with the same distribution and HCP, but with AQx in . Doubling and rebidding NT would show the actual type of hand, where there is a stopper in the opponent's suit, but a slight reluctance to play in NT.

 

I would put a little blame to South therefore. The contract seems quite good to me. With divided as they are, there is no chance to make.

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Personally, I'd pass the North hand. 1 1/2 QTs and a bad 12 count -- dangling Q, Q empty fifth in s with no intermediates in the suit -- just isn't enough.

 

With the actual auction 1 - 1 , I'd be very reluctant to bid 3 NT with just Qxx. For 3 NT to be right, it looks like responder needs some help from partner. I think a previous poster's comment about a negative double is a good one. Opener, at least, has a chance to bid 1 NT over it.

 

Alas, the cards don't set well and 3 NT has no play despite the 26 HCP between the two hands. With no spots in , there's really no suit to develop. The only hope was a doubleton A with East which is what declarer played for.

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Doubling and rebidding NT would show the actual type of hand, where there is a stopper in the opponent's suit, but a slight reluctance to play in NT.

Perhaps it does for you but this is hardly universal. Many play that the first round double promises 4 spades. If you play it this way and do not have a gadget of the type Josh and Phil have mentioned then your only recourse is to respond 3NT or 2. If you do double with the South hand, North presumably rebids 1 to show a minimum with 3 spades and now rebidding 3NT has not gained you anything anyway. Even after a 2 response, it is doubtful whether we find out enough to make a good decision between 3NT and 5. There are plenty of North hands without a heart stopper where 3NT is still the best game.

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How would you distribute the blame here? Do you give any blame to either player? Did south play it poorly or was he just unlucky?

IMPs.

 

100% to the card gods.

No

See answer #1

 

I cringe to open the moth eaten North hand but would do it anyway.

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In reverse order, South played it fine, he took the best line. Even though 3NT played by North is a better contract, it's not going to make.

In some alternative universe, NS avoid playing game but even if North passes, it's basically impossible to stop in a making contract given that 2D seems to be about the last making one.

I don't like South's 3NT bid over 1H. There are two things wrong with it: first, it might be better played by partner looking at Qx or A10x or.... and second, you might be better in 5D opposite, say, Kxx x AQxxxx Kxx

 

There are all sorts of methods you can play to get North to declare. One is to play either double or 1S as denying four spades, then North bids 1NT and South bids game.

I don't think this is a good hand for the special 3-level bid to transfer to 3NT, because 3NT might not be the right contract. And 3NT might be better played by you anyway (imagine Kxx xx AQxxx Kxx opposite)

 

You could bid 2C over 1S, then cue if partner bids 2D.

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After 1m - 1M we play the Q-bid 2M as Inv+ with NT in focus. Opener is asked to rebid NT with a stopper or re-Q with a partial stop and GF values. If responder's intention is GF in m (or slammish), it will develop from there. Certainly a good idea to put East on lead from the get-go.

 

Double for me promises 4s.

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Do you mean 3? I think standard for 3 is a weak jump.

I meant 3, but I don't really think there is a single standard - I'd expect it to vary according to where you are. I'm sure, though, that whatever the standard meaning is in the original poster's area, it isn't "Please bid 3NT".

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