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Some Auctions


broze

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Some auctions that came up today. Answer any or all. :D

 

 

1)

 

What is the difference between: [hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1d2h3c(Nat%2C%20GF)p3hp3np4c]133|100[/hv] and [hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1d2h3cp4c]133|100[/hv]

 

2)

 

How do people play this scramble? [hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1cp1sp2sppdp2n(%3F)]133|100[/hv]

 

3)

 

What is the standard (2/1; strong NT) meaning for 3here if you play support doubles? Is it just a hand that wants to play 3NT with a stop opposite (e.g. Axx Kx Jx AKQJTx) or do you include a good spades raise too? [hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=p1cp1s2d3d(%3F)]133|100[/hv]

 

3i) Playing good-bad 2NT (and support doubles) what is the difference between the auction above and [hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=p1cp1s2d2n(Good-bad)p3c(Forced)p3d(%3F)]133|100[/hv]?

 

3ii) 3 here - GF and start cue bidding? [hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=p1cp1s2d2n(Good-bad)p3c(Forced)p3s]133|100[/hv]

Edited by broze
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1.The first one is definitely stronger demanding a cuebid.

In the second one responder is allowed to sign off with a minimum hand.

 

2.Any 2 suits (clubs included)

 

3. The important question is do you play support X or does X show a strong hand. Do you play good/bad. Strong or weak NT. Without this information I cant answer your questions.

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For Hand 1, I have the opposite idea to the clown. The second auction is a clear slam try and uses whatever method you have agreed for slam auctions with 4 level agreement. For me that is conditional RKCB (1st step bad, others steps good + key cards), for most it will be cue bids. The first auction is unusual because the cue bid will normally mean interest in 3NT. I think there are 2 ways of playing this. The first is for this to be an invitational raise and therefore non-forcing. The second is that Opener has a hand that is worth a slam try opposite a partner without wasted heart values. The latter would be my choice and tends to suggest heart shoortage.

 

I do agree with the clown on Hand 2 though. Any 2 suits seems right to me.

 

For Hand 3, I am fond of the general rule that any undiscussed cue bid is to be treated as fourth suit forcing, that is either a hand looking for a stopper or a hand too strong to bid directly (if the latter makes sense - see Hand 1). Here we do not need to include a strong raise into 3 because direct jump raises already show values.

 

I have to be honest and say that I am not 100% sure what the standard agreement for auction 3i is. A sensible meaning (to me) might be showing a half stopper in diamonds. For auction 3ii, you have to decide if bidding 3 direct is stronger or weaker than this. I think the original idea is that a direct 3 is game forcing while 2NT followed by 3 is only invitational. It is probably better the other way round though. An alternative idea would be to continue to jump to 4 with the game forcing hand and use this delayed 3 sequence as a 2.5 raise. I am interested in hearing the methods that our more experienced posters use here.

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Hi,

 

#1 if you think it an option to stop in 4m, than one is inv. to 5C, the other showes SI.

I dont, but since 3m via 2NT is limited, it makes sense to play the raise to 4m as inv. / NF.

#2 scrambling asks to bid the better red suit

#3 3D could be based on spade support, 19+, but responder should assume, that it asks for a diamond

stopper.

#3i Stopper ask

#3ii 3S is not GF, it is highly inv. but NF, 3C showed min

You have 3 raises, the single raise (weak), the jump raise (GF), the raise via 2NT (inv)

This schema is the standard Lebensphl schema, but you change it.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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Hi:) 1) via cuebid shows extras and slam inv+, 2) 44+ minors 3)FG 18 + 6+clubs 3)i i used to play good-bad 2NT promising either good min with 6+carder or unbalanced 4card supp u cant normally show like after 1C-1H-(2s)-2NT-3C-3H so here 2NT easy to play that 2NT just 12-14 6+ clubs and u could supp spades just without artificiality.
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