lyncserver Posted February 14, 2013 Report Share Posted February 14, 2013 North open 1S and opponent overcall 2H. In North-South method, 2N means some kind of support so South pass instead.[hv=pc=n&s=s63hk86dk74ckjt43&w=sqj4h742dt62cq865&n=sakt872hadaj983c2&e=s95hqjt953dq5ca97&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1s2hpp3dp3np4d]399|300[/hv] Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vampyr Posted February 15, 2013 Report Share Posted February 15, 2013 Hand and auction missing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PhilKing Posted February 15, 2013 Report Share Posted February 15, 2013 I'm going to guess it is non-forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted February 15, 2013 Report Share Posted February 15, 2013 Hand and auction missing.why? just bid 3nt, the default bid if you can't read your cards nor the auction. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ahydra Posted February 15, 2013 Report Share Posted February 15, 2013 I am very confused. Can you please post the exact auction you're asking about? If the auction is 1S (2H) p (p); 4D then that is very strongly invitational to 4S or 5D, but not forcing. (Remember North did not open GF and South could have zero points). ahydra Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted February 15, 2013 Report Share Posted February 15, 2013 The OP is intended as constructive, but is does not force a reply. When OP reopens with a hand diagram and auction, it is standard BBF practice to treat it as invitational. Rik 7 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lyncserver Posted February 15, 2013 Author Report Share Posted February 15, 2013 Sorry not familiar on the interface for insert the diagram. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted February 15, 2013 Report Share Posted February 15, 2013 Maybe write in the hand?xAKJxxxKJxxxx maybe? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jeffford76 Posted February 15, 2013 Report Share Posted February 15, 2013 Pulling 3NT to 4m is forcing. If you don't want to play at least 4M or 5m, leave it in 3NT. (I'm assuming that is what the first question is asking.) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted February 15, 2013 Report Share Posted February 15, 2013 Non-forcing for me. I am happy to show I am 2-suited and probably a 6-5, 5-6, or 6-6. However, I might have bid 4♠ or pass rather than 4♦. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted February 15, 2013 Report Share Posted February 15, 2013 (edited) removed - misunderstood context. Edited February 15, 2013 by fromageGB Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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