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Slam Bidding Problem


awm

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[hv=pc=n&w=sak4hkdt65cajt874&e=s2hqjt96dakqj2ck5]266|100[/hv]

 

West deals, IMP scoring. How would you bid this pair of hands if:

 

(1) Opponents pass throughout?

(2) South overcalls 1 (if possible)

 

We played this hand in a team game (both tables playing 2/1) and both tables ended in 6, which certainly has play but is not the best spot. I'm sure that Sam and I could relay ourselves to the right place, but much more interested in how to get there in a natural system.

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In 1. the crux seems to be in which minor Responder continues after

1 - 1;

2 - 2;

3NT.

 

It is easy to see that 4 is going to work better here but I suspect many would prefer 4 single dummy. Then Opener surely cooperates with clubs as trumps. Of course, many play 2 as artificial here and such methods may also help. The easiest way to reach 6 is for West to open 1NT but that is also perhaps not to everyone's taste.

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1-1-(1)

2-2

3NT-4*

4*-4*

5*-6NT

 

I would rebid 2, irrespective of the overcall

 

3NT shows more than a minimum (15-17)

4 key card ask (1430) in clubs, but keycard asker first suit (hearts) is a second key suit. I never believed in a minor needs to be agreed before you should be able to use minorwood.

4 (3 key cards)

4 Q?

5 No.

6NT conclusion

 

Rainer Herrmann

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Why isn't anybody starting with 1 + 3 to show 5-5 reds GF+ values? it is the natural thing for me. It leads to a lot of decisions for both east and west, but slam will be probably reached, and someone wll correct 6 to 6 upon realicing Q is missing

 

An alternative is to start with 1+3, I don't think this is the hand for it, but it is reasonable. After 3 and some form of blackwood it will be obvious to east that 6 is a great contract. Since Q is missing, west must have either K making it high, or AKQ in wich case just being able to ruff one heart in dummy will bring 2 5 1 3

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Why isn't anybody starting with 1 + 3 to show 5-5 reds GF+ values? it is the natural thing for me. It leads to a lot of decisions for both east and west, but slam will be probably reached, and someone wll correct 6 to 6 upon realicing Q is missing

Dunno why nobody chose that. Sounds good.

 

I do know why we couldn't; 3 would mean something else.

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In standard I play what fluffy suggested, that the second round jump is 5-5 GF, so I would start

 

1 1 (1)

2 3

3NT 4

 

and the auction could go a lot of ways from here but I'm sure we would get to slam and that it would not be in clubs.

 

In precision we would show similar hand types

 

2 2NT (relay)

3 3 (5H 5D GF)

3NT 4

 

I guess it requires responder pulling 3NT but that definitely seems like the right thing to do to me. Even a 5-2 heart fit if we have to reach it should be fine.

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I didn't start 1-1;2-3 because I think that the default meaning is a splinter. Maybe that's just an English thing, or just a 40-something and living in London thing.

Yes, a Splinter for here .

2D! would be "artificial cheapest new suit bid forcing " ( similar to NMF over 1NT rebid ).

 

Thus, 3D! is a jump-over-a-forcing-bid ( in that suit ) = Splinter for the last bid suit .

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I didn't start 1-1;2-3 because I think that the default meaning is a splinter. Maybe that's just an English thing, or just a 40-something and living in London thing.

I think splinter and invitational 5-5 are both more common than what I play. Splinter seems especially silly to me since that leaves us no natural diamond bids at all, but it is a common treatment.

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Yes, a Splinter for here .

2D! would be "artificial cheapest new suit bid forcing " ( similar to NMF over 1NT rebid ).

 

Thus, 3D! is a jump-over-a-forcing-bid ( in that suit ) = Splinter for the last bid suit .

I mean obviously this rule is insane if you don't say "forcing NATURAL bid in a suit". Is 1 p 1 p 1NT p 3 a splinter bid for spades just because 2 is a forcing bid?

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I mean obviously this rule is insane if you don't say "forcing NATURAL bid in a suit". Is 1 p 1 p 1NT p 3 a splinter bid for spades just because 2 is a forcing bid?

The NMF case is different .

Opener does not have an "immediate" suit that was rebid:

 

1D - 1S

1NT - 3C jump is either weak or invitational ( depending on pre-agreed preference ) .

 

1D - 1S

1NT - 2C! ( NMF )

2H/2NT - 3C ( 5/5, GF )

"In NMF, all jumps are either weak or invitational; whereas GF auctions go thru NMF."

 

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

In your example of the "self-splinter" , Responder has to make the double-jump:

1D - 1S

1NT - 4C! = self-splinter for .

 

BTW:

1D - 1S

1NT - 4D! is also a self-splinter for .

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It wouldn't occur to me that 2 was forcing, nor 3 a splinter, so bidding naturally I follow lalldonn's sequence to 3NT, but then bid 4 rather than 4. I can always revert to clubs if nothing better happens. After that, maybe 4 as a cue agreeing diamonds

 

With my version of TWalsh, 1 to show the hearts, then 3 is slammish 5+ cards. 3 shows control and agrees diamonds, and then there are different routes that could be taken.

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Apparently I'm the only one who is jumping to 3C as opener (yes, a minimum 3C for me, but I didn't seriously consider bidding only 2C.)

 

1C-1H

3C-3D

3NT-4D

 

and from here there are several paths to 6D or 6NT. 4S by opener, agreeing diamonds, sounds like a good start.

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