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Not reaching a slam


Hanoi5

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You are mistaken and apparently do not understand what I said nor what people, probably better than you are, say or imply at Bridge winnrers.

 

3 in this sequence is an invite to game, not to slam. If overcaller bids 3 you are done.

4 is acceptable (though not my choice). It is an overbid and not an underbid.

4 opposite a non vulnerable one level overcall is plain crazy!

 

Rainer Herrmann

 

I've read all the coments and don't find anyone who I know, so can't say they are any good. But what it is more important, I don't find ANYONE suggesting the definitions you make of the 3 bids. You claim to have support from 75 votes, but in reality you have nothing like that, you are inventing the definiton and asigning it to the voters when none of them said so.

 

I don't see anyone comenting that 4 shows values, since that is something only you think, you even think that everyone in the world, who plays it as preemptive should alert to you. Becuase your understanding of the bid, who is unique in the world, is standard, and the rest of the world is playing artificial.

 

I see a lot of votes for 3 though, that gives me a fair idea of the level of the crowd.

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I've read all the coments and don't find anyone who I know, so can't say they are any good. But what it is more important, I don't find ANYONE suggesting the definitions you make of the 3 bids.

To make it clear:

If there is a choice of cuebids and only one of them is below three of our major suit fit, that has to be the game invite.

(If that does not make sense to you we can give up this discussion)

It can be stronger, but only if cuebidder bids on over a sign-off. However, if he does, he promises a control in the suit.

From responders hand if one would think the hand is a slam invite, it would not occur to me to bid 3, simply because South controls clubs but not hearts.

The fact that the South hand has no control in hearts but in clubs makes it clear that the 3 bid is considered a game invite and not a slam invite.

I consider that pretty standard and also implied by the comments even if that goes over your head.

 

You claim to have support from 75 votes, but in reality you have nothing like that, you are inventing the definiton and asigning it to the voters when none of them said so.

I never did so. I said I prefer the majority vote of 3 myself and I see little support for 4 or 4.

Nothing else I said.

 

I don't see anyone comenting that 4 shows values, since that is something only you think, you even think that everyone in the world, who plays it as preemptive should alert to you. Because your understanding of the bid, who is unique in the world, is standard, and the rest of the world is playing artificial.

 

I see a lot of votes for 3 though, that gives me a fair idea of the level of the crowd.

There is a general principle that you do not preempt over an opposing preempt.

Whether it should apply here can be argued, except that I also said I deem it improbable that South was preempting when I look at a seven card suit myself headed by AKJ and even if I were not sure what South had in mind, I would not pass because opposite a preempt there is zero chance for us playing 4 doubled or not and with a void in hearts it cannot be right to pass in this case either.

It is obvious from the actual South hand that this South did not meant his 4 bid a preempt.

 

However, if you do have the agreement in this scenario:

 

When my pard bids 4 in an auction like this I just hope to get out for down 2.

I agree, I would like to get alerted about it. Nothing else I claimed.

I do not think that this is an universal agreement about this sequence, neither did the actual South player. .

Knowledge would affect my way of defending against it.

 

Rainer Herrmann

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Lol Rainer, you are claiming to deduce how people intended 3 because of the hand they have on a weak field full of people bidding 3, double and 3. Now that is crazy.

 

 

The big problem is that you think that a cuebid must be inviting to something, either game, or slam. This is simply not true.

 

A 4 cuebid is a useful tool to let partner make an informed decision next round. It just states that we have the upper hand, and that it makes no sense to let the opponents play undoubled at the 5 level, making pass forcing.

 

4 helps partner make an informed decision at the 5 level as well, just that it doesn't set up a forcing pass situation. Wichever is best here is debatable. I prefer 4 to have a higher ODR.

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I think South's hand is only worth 3, planning to pass 3. I don't want to reach 4 opposite AQxxx Kx xxx xxx.

 

I don't think a 4 cue-bid would be a slam try: it just shows a hand that is bidding 4 to make and wants to set up a forcing pass. It's rare that you want to make a slam try after an opponent has opened at the one-level.

 

I don't think 4 shows any great strength. I'd bid 4 with Qxxx Axx QJxxx x, on the assumption that someone can make something at the four-level, and leaving them to guess whether to compete to 5.

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