Jump to content

How to bid this hand? # 3


barsikb

Recommended Posts

To answer this one I need to know a little about what you have been taught but hopefully you can get the gist from an outline. I think the North hand is too good for a 1NT opening and should be treated as 18. So North opens 1, South responds 2 and now North makes the systemic rebid for 18-19 balanced. In many (most?) systems this will be 2NT. If you have been taught 3NT then this is also fine. The South hand does not fit well but is nonetheless good enough for a slam try now. The logical move towards that is 4NT, which North will pass.
Link to comment
Share on other sites

1S-2C (we play 2/1 GF)

2N-3N (2N = 12-14 or 18-19 balanced, usually 5332, 3N = to play)

4N-6N (4N = 18-19, 6N = to play)

 

If north chooses to open this 1N, we'll peter out in 3N on Tyler's auction, which is ok.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Do we really want to be in 6 here?

 

Looks like a lot of chances to me, but I wasn't even making the argument that we should be there. Just saying that I would end up in 6N for better or for worse.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I prefer a 1 open because it looks more like a spade hand than a NT hand, even if you play 1NT can include a 5 card major.

 

1 - 2 (game force playing 2 over 1, not necessarily long clubs)

2 (waiting bid, so that responder can clarify his hand a little) - 2 (useful 4 card suit)

2NT (suggests playing in NT) - 3NT (nothing else to say)

4NT (slam suggestion) - pass

 

Think of the 4NT as being like a quantitative NT raise, with responder passing on a minimum 13-15 hcp hand, but going 6NT on a 16 count. Or maybe trying 5NT on a 15 count, but here the spade shortage is not going to help opener's hand.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I don't understand those who ar able to show 18 with north and then pass with south's hand, 33 combined, and every suit with 4+ cards so no dreadful AQx opposite KJx. You should just go to slam.

 

I would rebid 2NT with north wich shows 15+, then it is a bit messy because south is probably worth no more than 3NT, but north might be worth 4NT.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I don't understand those who ar able to show 18 with north and then pass with south's hand, 33 combined, and every suit with 4+ cards so no dreadful AQx opposite KJx. You should just go to slam.

 

I would rebid 2NT with north wich shows 15+, then it is a bit messy because south is probably worth no more than 3NT, but north might be worth 4NT.

Agreed.

 

We would bid:

 

1-2(10+)

2N (GF not always bal, 15+)-3(4, only 4)

4N (quant usually 17-bad 19 bal, 3 would be spades, 4 would ask aces with hearts agreed)-6N (would bid 6with 3424 which is still possible)

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Dealer: N[hv=pc=n&s=sqhaq93dt986caqjt&n=sakj85hj7dakjc953]133|200[/hv]

 

 

East's hand[hv=pc=n&e=s432h542dak42c642&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1sp2cp2np3np4np6nppdppp]133|200[/hv]

 

There sure are a lot of diamond honors in this deck.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Sure, that could happen, but most people will go middle of the road and bid a 33 combined slam, unless they find that they have 2 losers.

 

1S-2C

2NT-3NT

4NT-6NT for me.

I don't have a problem with this, but I do feel that I might bid 4 on the way over 3N as it could be a good idea to play in clubs, and after this it potentially gets murky, but maybe S just bids 6N.

 

Try xx, AKxx, Qx, AJ108x opposite the original hand for example where 6 is a lot better than 6N.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

How do we give Opener 18-19 when he has only 17 hcp ??

 

3NT directly over the 2C! ( GF ) would be the 15-17 picture bid .

 

(a) I think it's worth 18 (honors are prime, we have a nice 5 card suit)

(b) I get the added benefit of partner raising spades directly (as opposed to opening this 1N).

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Thank you for all the replies.

 

Sorry, I need to get back to basics on this.

 

1-2

After that presuming we are not using 2/1 but SAYC, what should opener bid?

 

Isn't 2NT showing less than 15HCP?

 

What would North bid after partner's 2 if his hand was AKJ85,87,KJ2,953 in both SAYC and 2/1?

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Many systems use a repest of Opener's major (2 here) as a "bucket" to cover all of the weak hands. That frees up 2NT to be strong and balanced. This is why I was asking what you have been taught. If you play that 2NT is weak and use a 3NT rebid to show a stronger hand then you have to do that instead. It makes little difference here as Responder simply wants to invite slam with 4NT.
Link to comment
Share on other sites

Thank you for all the replies.

 

Sorry, I need to get back to basics on this.

 

1-2

After that presuming we are not using 2/1 but SAYC, what should opener bid?

 

Isn't 2NT showing less than 15HCP?

 

What would North bid after partner's 2 if his hand was AKJ85,87,KJ2,953 in both SAYC and 2/1?

Not sure what 1-2-2N shows in SAYC, if you were referring to my auction, 2N is 15+ because I play a weak no trump.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

It is but we cannot have everything. For example, if an Opener's rebid of 3 is forcing, and it is for most non-Acol systems out there, then we need an alternative rebid for a minimum opening with 5 spades and 4 clubs. The majority of systems use 2 for this purpose. Similarly, if the response had been 2 instead of 2, the only possible rebid for a weak hand with 5 spades and 4 clubs would be 2. This illustrates that rebidding spades does not generally promise 6. More than this, since the upper range for the rebid is about 15 and the lower range for Responder is 10, partner will normally bid again giving us another chance to bid and complete the description of our hand.
Link to comment
Share on other sites

Forgot about NT being possibly weak. I've heard about that style a lot.

 

To me so far 1NT is 15-17

Weak or strong notrump has lots of side-effects on auctions where 1N is not opened, as does whether you open 1N with a 5 card major-332. To give you a bit of insight into how a system you may not see much works:

 

To a weak notrump Acol player, 1-2-2 just says I have a minimum opener with 5+ spades and without 4 hearts unless I have a lot of spades. So 5(332), 5??4, 6???. If you open 1N with 5332s then you know partner has either or both of a 6th spade and a 4th club.

 

Also if you open 1N with all 5332s, 1-2-2 is categorically 6 of them.

 

The notrump rebids can also be mucked about with as you know partner doesn't have a weak no trump so has extra points or shape when he opens 1 of a suit, so after a 2/1 2N is GF as you've guaranteed 15 opposite 10, so it can be pretty much unlimited and you can use 3N for something else. Some people actually invert 2N/3N to make slam investigation easier.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

Loading...
×
×
  • Create New...