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Deal #21


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You are South and dealer. V vs NV. Imps. This deal was played by a local expert pair. If possible, East overcalls 1H. West competes to 3H or cues 3C if available.

 

............................T5432

............................K832

............................853

............................2

A97.......................................................KQ6

A94.......................................................QJT75

A962.....................................................T4

853.......................................................974

............................J8

............................6

............................KQJ7

............................AKQJT6

 

Outcomes

 

3C S SCREAM

3C S Moscito

3H E relknes

3H E Precision by Free

3H E Polish Club

3H E Silent Club

3H E qplus10

3H E Zelandakh

3H E New Big Club (HK)

3C S jack502

3H E OCP

3H E TOSR

3H E Unassuming Club

2S N Malfoir

3H E Imprecision

3H E Meckwell Light

 

3H E Pass2000 (forcing pass opening)

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............................T5432

............................K832

............................853

............................2

A97.......................................................KQ6

A94.......................................................QJT75

A962.....................................................T4

853.......................................................974

............................J8

............................6

............................KQJ7

............................AKQJT6

 

The actual auction went 1C P 1D (1H) 2C (3C) P (3H) 3N P 4C

 

My guess that 3N showed side diamonds. West was kind not to double.

 

SCREAM bids this...

 

1C-1S (16+, DN)

3C-p (to play)

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I will open 1.

If partner responds with 1, I will bid 2 (16-~21, 5+, no 4+ major if 16-17), intending to raise diamonds, or rebid clubs after a major suit response. Slam is no longer in the picture after partner's 1.

If partner bids 1M (GF, 9+ points, 5+ suit) I will respond with 2 (unbalanced, 5+) intending to bid diamonds later.

If partner bids 1N (9+ points, balanced, GF) I will respond with 3 (setting trump and asking partner to make a reverse-cuebid)

If partner bids 2 (highly unlikely, as it shows 9+ points, 5+ clubs, unbalanced) I will bid 3 (splinter)

If partner bids 2 I will also bid 3 as a splinter.

If partner bids 2M, showing 5-8 points and 6+ in the major and denying 4+ in the other major, I will respond with 3 and continue based on what they show.

If partner makes an "Unusual positive" I will make the key-ask and explore a minor suit slam.

 

This is obviously a slammish hand, needing 3 working cards to make 6

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To the second part of the problem:

 

 

 

Depends on what partner did over the cuebid

 

After:

1-P-1-(1)

2-(3)-X-3

 

I would go 4 (partner's double shows a hand that would have competed to 3 but doesn't have enough to raise to 4. If they wanted to make a takeout double, they would pass and balance with a double)

 

After:

1-P-1-(1)

2-(3)-P-3

 

I would pass.

 

 

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I think this is going to be a bad hand for me.

 

After

1 - (P) - 1 - 1;

2 - 3,

where 2 shows an Acol 2 in a minor (8 tricks or 21+), would North still pass? If so then I guess I have to pass too (partner must be broke) but it stinks and we could still have a huge club fit. Maybe I should switch to the "EBU variant", where an Acol 2 in clubs gets opened with a 2 Multi; it is the second one where the 2 rebid has caused problems. But I do so prefer the weak only method...

 

Note: I wrote this before you revealed the hands. It looks like my bid being an Acol 2 rather than non-forcing does not change anything and I just get to defend 3(E). I cannot say I like it though.

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I don't understand why a '1 hand with spoilers'-format is changed so quickly to a full deal problem. You have like 8 responses to one problem and from now on people will respond to another problem.

 

Sorry if it wasn't enough time. I waited maybe 10 hours after posting the initial problem which I thought would be enough for most people to think about how high they would like to compete. I wanted to give the 0-7 folks the full value of the problem since they can't entirely be sure partner has nothing at their last chance to bid.

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#21 You are South and dealer; V vs NV ;Imps;This deal was played by a local expert pair; If possible, East overcalls 1H;West competes to 3H or cues 3C if available.
Jasmine

North T5432 K832 853 2: __ 1 _P

East ..........................: __ 1 3

South J8 6 KQJ7 AKQJT6: 1 2 AP

West ..........................: _P 3

  • 1 = Art, 16+.
  • 1 = Art, neg, 0-7.
  • 2 = Nat

3 is likely to be the final contract but South might double 3. Then North has a close choice between pass and 3.

 

Marks, IMO: 1, 1N, 2 = 10. (3/(3X) = 8. 3 = 5. 3/4 = 1.

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Hilversumse Klaveren (HK)

 

1 - (P) - 1 - (1)

2 - (2) - p - (p)

3 - (3) - p - (p)

 

Explanation:

1 = 16+, not a balanced 16-20

1 = denying several one or two suited hands with 0-7 HCP. With 4 HCP North would have bid 1 = 4-4 or 4-5 in the majors and 4-7 HCP.

2 = natural, 5+ clubs

3 = strong enough to compete at the 3-level

 

Jan

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Hilversumse Klaveren (HK)

 

1 - (P) - 1 - (1)

2 - (2) - p - (p)

3 - (3) - p - (p)

 

Explanation:

1 = 16+, not a balanced 16-20

1 = denying several one or two suited hands with 0-7 HCP. With 4 HCP North would have bid 1 = 4-4 or 4-5 in the majors and 4-7 HCP.

2 = natural, 5+ clubs

3 = strong enough to compete at the 3-level

 

Jan

 

I think you're 2H raise is very reasonable, but the opponents on the actual deal cue bid clubs so I'd like to set the problem up that way. 3C P 3H ?

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Sorry if it wasn't enough time. I waited maybe 10 hours after posting the initial problem which I thought would be enough for most people to think about how high they would like to compete. I wanted to give the 0-7 folks the full value of the problem since they can't entirely be sure partner has nothing at their least chance to bid.

Since these deals are posted on a daily basis, perhaps it would be better to wait 24 hours. Just a suggestion ;)

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I think you're 2H raise is very reasonable, but the opponents on the actual deal cue bid clubs so I'd like to set the problem up that way. 3C P 3H ?

 

Okay, so the auction will be:

 

Hilversumse Klaveren (HK)

 

1 - (p) - 1 - (1)

2 - (3)- p - (3)

all pass

 

Explanation:

1 = 16+, not a balanced 16-20

1 = denying several one or two suited hands with 0-7 HCP. With 4 HCP North would have bid 1 = 4-4 or 4-5 in the majors and 4-7 HCP.

2 = natural, 5+ clubs

 

No action by North over Wests 3-bid, so no action by South either.

 

Jan

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jack has done pretty well only one hand where it did badly so far.

 

I think i will give up on qplus10 as I don't think we can learn anything from its bidding.

 

I am glad to have Jack participating.

 

Its hard for a mere human to bid these hands objectively, so its nice to see hwat a computer is able to do playing a similar system.

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Not sure on this one. By system it is probably 3E or 4S. But at table we got to 4S.

 

at table:

1-P-1-1 : 16+ unbal or 18+ bal; 0-7 or occ 8+ with <2 ctls

2-3-P-3 : nat, nf (pass would have been forcing); no real special meaning for pass

X-P-4 : t/o; try game in spades

 

by system (I.e. better judgement):

1-P-1-1 : 16+ unbal or 18+ bal; 0-7 or occ 8+ with <2 ctls

2-3-P-3 : nat, nf (pass would have been forcing); no real special meaning for pass

? 4 or P : likely to have at least 8-9 tricks in own hand, hope partner can help

 

I guess the X of 3 is a bit too risky, especially since the hand has poor defense to offense, so if wanting to compete 4 is probably more correct.

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