Missed slam

[Curls77]

I normally play simple 2/1, while partner plays 5Majors, it was maybe 2nd time we parded.

In IMPS, the deal was:

[hv=pc=n&s=st92hadqjt943cqt9&w=skqj763h9862d65c2&n=s8hkj4dak87cakj83&e=sa54hqt753d2c7654&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=p1cp1d1s3d3s4h4sdppp]399|300[/hv]

 

I must admit I didn’t know for sure what partner’s 4H was (the most obvious control bid which he alerted as "cue"), but even if I did, what was I supposed to do not knowing that we had double fit? Should I bid 5C or 5D? Or simply jump to 6D?

 

Pard says he expected 4NT RKC for ♦ from me, but I learned not to use 4N on minor fit, since often we can not sign off at 5th level in case we find out that we do not have enough controls for slam. Only later I realized that it was very unlikely my p would have 5H or 5S RKC answer, but still he could have a void; so I am not sure if RKC would be of any help.

 

Thanks for your advices :)

[TWO4BRIDGE]

I could give an auction with Minorwood and then DOPI over the 4S interference... but i won't.

This one calls for a leap-of-faith bid of 6D by Responder.

 

He is the only one in the partnership who knows of the double-fit ( ♦/♣ ), and surely partner must be short in ♠ .

[han]

North has a normal 3S bid, or if you don't play splinters, a normal 2S bid.

 

I didn't look at the rest of the auction, for me the bridge ends with 3D.

[fromageGB]

I think the feeling is that your 3♦ bid was wrong. The way I play, this can be passed. Without splinters you need to set up a forcing situation and bid diamonds later, so North's first rebid could be 2♠. Better, if you play splinters, 3♠ to show the spade shortage AND agree your partner's diamond suit, all in one bid.

 

If you don't want to play 4NT ace ask over a minor (and I don't blame you) you need to agree that before making a unilateral decision. But the bidding would have been different anyway, had you not bid 3♦.

[Curls77]

Thanks all for the answers. I accept 3D critique, it's not a bid I'd normally do. But since p & me play different systems, and me being very inexperienced, I thought this was least of evils: I wasn't sure if p played splinters, I knew for sure he doesn't play minorwood, and I also knew he plays jumps as strong and that he'd read 3D as reverse kind of hand (in strength and in shape).

I think he'd translate spade cue-bid from me as a stopper asking, and I wouldn't know what I’d do next if he would have it and bid NT.

 

Would someone be kind enough to post how full correct auction would have been, should I have bid 2S ?

Thanks again : )

[daveharty]

I don't much care for the 3♦ bid either, but I don't really see what it has to do with what comes later. I also don't understand why the "double fit" is a sticking point. South made a free 4♥ bid. What does it mean? I know what it would mean for me, but who really cares what it means? It is clearly slam-positive; and that means South is interested in slam missing the AK of trumps. If 4♥ is a control bid for diamonds, great--North has a fitting king and both black suits under control. If 4♥ is a suit, again, great--North has two fitting honors. How much better could the North hand possibly be?

[neilkaz]

"I normally play simple 2/1, while partner plays 5Majors"

 

Of course that is irelevant to this hand and the misbidding herein.

 

Anyhow, North displayed very poor hand evaluation skills this hand and is to blame for the missed slam.

 

In response to 1♦ North has a good 19 hcp concentrated in three suits, and a stiff in his RHO's suit with 4 card support for PD's suit. His hand has become a monster and for pt counters it is worth 22 pts. It clearly is at least an ace too strong to bid just 3♦ which can be passed. If not playing splinters, North needs to cue bid 2♠ to force a round.

 

North's 3rd bid, doubling 4♠ is as bad as his 2nd bid. North has heard South free bid 4♥! South could've passed 3♠ with junk, bid 4♦ to invite game with a little something extra, or bid 5♦. But, no South has bid 4♥ which is stronger than bidding 5♦ and clearly looking for slam.

 

Even if somehow North thinks South's 4♥ is natural he has to wonder why South didn't bid 1♥ but even so he has a great fit for ♥.

 

North could just blast 6♦ instead of confusing the issue with his silly X. Or if in doubt, North can just bid RKC noting that South's responses will show his aces since he's looking at the red kings. If South has no aces, WTP as no response goes past 5♦.

 

Is south supposed to pull North's double of 4♠? Well.. I'd hate to be South in the post mortum if North somehow actually had his bids and 4♠X was our best result. Is South supposed to "see" his PD's stiff? Well opp's have bid on air and junk before.