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Deal #17


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Pass 2000

South will have a choice between showing the hand as 12-16 unbal or 17+. Here's both auctions:

 

1C (12-16 unbal or 15-17 bal) - 1D (0-7 or game forcing);

2S (12-16, 4 spades and 5+ diamonds or 4-0-4-5) - 3C (pass or correct, in case partner has 4-0-4-5);

3D

 

pass (0-7 or 17+) - 1C (0-7 or 17+);

1S (4+ spades, unbal may have longer side suit, 17-19 hcp) - 1NT (relay);

2D (4 spades, 5+ diamonds).

 

Here north will have to choose between making an INV bid (perhaps 2NT) or passing.

 

Putting you down for 2N.

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Would people agree on the standard 2/1 auction? My guess is:

 

1-1

1-1N

2-P

 

where 2H shows extras. Not sure if this is enough extras to show, or whether standard players might drop it in 1N. Guessing they should bid again over 1N in general, if not this time.

 

That's how I would bid it.

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1C-1D-

1S-1N-....... 16+,4+S .......... 5-7, no likey Sp

2D-2H. ...... 5+D,no like NT ....4+H

............. 3+H, 16-18 so quit.

 

If I read this right the 1N bid doesn't deny 5+ hearts. I think North's 2H rebid doesn't make sense. 2N I could see...or support spades maybe, but to introduce a 4-cd suit after pd has shown two suits shows too much direction. What do you and others think?

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#17. You are South and Dealer. NV vs NV. Imps. Uncontested auction. This deal was played by local experts.
Jasmine . Difficult to stop...

North Q5 KJ95 97 J7643: __ 1 22N

South AKT4 Q83 AQJ54 5: 1 1N 2_Pass

  • 1 = Art 16+.
  • 1 = Art Neg 0-7.
  • 1N = Nat 16-18 Flat?!
  • 2 = Stayman.
  • 2 = Nat 4 .
  • 2N = Nat.

Or, less likely..

North Q5 KJ95 97 J7643: __ 1 2N

South AKT4 Q83 AQJ54 5: 1 2 _P

  • 1 = Art, 16+.
  • 1 = Neg, 0-7.
  • 2 = Nat NF. (1 and 1N both Nat, NF, are alternatives).
  • 2N = Nat constructive. (2, 3, and 3N, all Nat, are also possible).
  • _P = Nat Min

Or, in the light of Zelandakh's comments..

North Q5 KJ95 97 J7643: __ 1 2N

South AKT4 Q83 AQJ54 5: 1

  • 1 = Art, 16+
  • 1 = Nat 4+ {SP]. Possible Canape (as here).
  • 2 = Nat.
  • 2 = Nat.
  • 2N = Nat

Marks, IMO: 1N = 10. 2 = 9. 2 = 7. 3 = 6. 3 = 5. 2N = 4. 4 = 3. 3N = 2.

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4 N at the table with tosr (possibly 3nt or 2N by system?)

 

1-1 : any 16+; 0-7 or occ 8+ with <2 ctls

2-2 : nat, not forcing; good hand in context with 4+ (often 5) H

3-4 : fit for H, and not terrible in context; game

 

Probably I should bid 3nt choice of game instead of 4 and partner probably passes that. Possibly partner should pass 2 given the minimal hand.

 

I'm going to put you down for 3H for the time being. If you or others feel that I've made a mistake, please say so...but if your system really allows for a 2H bid with a 4+ card suit then I think opener probably stretches to raise what could actually be a nice dummy and that's high enough. I can't see responder worth another bid.

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I'll have to check this with my partner, because I'm not sure if 2 is artificial F1 or natural NF:

1-1 (16+ ; 0-7 or GF 4441)

1-2 (4+ F1 ; 5-7 with 0-2)

2-pass (5+? NF?)

 

Free, have you talked to your partner yet? I think playing 2D as 5+ diamonds doesn't make a lot of sense and I've always seen it as a relay if 2C is artificial with 5-7 and 0-2 spades. I.e. the bid of 2D is too useful to be reserved for 5+ diamonds. What would opener do with 5S/4D? 5S/4C? Etc. I think Meckwell (who plays 2C similarly) would rebid 2S with the North hand (showing 2) and opener would probably retreat to 2N. Landing in a 5-2 spade fit is not a bad thing.

 

1C-1D

1S-2C

2D-2S

2N

 

rather than risk 3D. In my auction I did risk 3D but it was due to a lead directing double of 2C on my right. Ordinarily, I'd be with the group wanting to be in no trump.

 

Anyway, please post your final auction and explanation. Thanks.

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Free, have you talked to your partner yet? I think playing 2D as 5+ diamonds doesn't make a lot of sense and I've always seen it as a relay if 2C is artificial with 5-7 and 0-2 spades. I.e. the bid of 2D is too useful to be reserved for 5+ diamonds. What would opener do with 5S/4D? 5S/4C? Etc. I think Meckwell (who plays 2C similarly) would rebid 2S with the North hand (showing 2) and opener would probably retreat to 2N. Landing in a 5-2 spade fit is not a bad thing.

 

1C-1D

1S-2C

2D-2S

2N

 

rather than risk 3D. In my auction I did risk 3D but it was due to a lead directing double of 2C on my right. Ordinarily, I'd be with the group wanting to be in no trump.

 

Anyway, please post your final auction and explanation. Thanks.

2 appears to be an artificial relay. It's the only option we have with a hand like this, and after 2 we'd bid 3 with the South hand because my values are in my suits which makes the hand suit-oriented.

1-1 (16+ any ; 0-7 any or GF 4441)

1-2 (4+ F1 ; 5-7 with 0-2)

2-2 (art relay ; 2)

3-pass (4 5+ ; bleh)

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I think

1 - 1;

2 - 2;

2 - 2NT looks like a better auction here. There is no reason why South could not be 3451 rather than 4351.

Zealandakh is probably right :) I notice that JLOGIC also incorporates majors first Canapé into his 1 auctions :)
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  • 4 weeks later...

Unnamed Homebrew Diamond:

1-1 16+, excluding GF / 0-7 any

2-2N Natural, usually 5+ cards, NF / top of range, balanced/semi-balanced

end

 

16 facing 6-7, and partner's got no real diamond fit? He suggests 2NT? Don't mind if I do. Of course, there's the possibility N decides to bid 2 instead, and I think S passes that as well.

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