lycier Posted January 17, 2013 Report Share Posted January 17, 2013 [hv=pc=n&n=s3hak98daqj9ckq85&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1dp1sp]133|200[/hv] after 1d---1S:1-you rebid 2nt? can you not promise a belanced hand? how to define 2nt with unbalance if agreed?2-directly bid 3nt? For me,it shows a solid D suit ,18hcp with singliton in S.3-jump to 3C? can you promise cards of suits? Thank you very much. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dustinst22 Posted January 17, 2013 Report Share Posted January 17, 2013 [hv=pc=n&n=s3hak98daqj9ckq85&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1dp1sp]133|200[/hv] after 1d---1S:1-you rebid 2nt? can you not promise a belanced hand? how to define 2nt with unbalance if agreed?2-directly bid 3nt? For me,it shows a solid D suit ,18hcp with singliton in S.3-jump to 3C? can you promise cards of suits? Thank you very much. No, dont think you should bid 2N. Describe your shape further, I'd bid 2H. You may have a slam in a minor and bidding 2N could make it difficult to find if partner doesn't know your shape. On your next bid, bid 3C. This should show the type of hand you have. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted January 17, 2013 Report Share Posted January 17, 2013 Rebid 2H. I think that this hand should be opened 1C. There can be hands and auctions where your rebid can be inconvenient after opening 1C with this shape, this is rarely the case when you are this strong. After 1C you have more room and you can easily find diamonds, while after 1D..2H it is really hard to find clubs. 3 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted January 17, 2013 Report Share Posted January 17, 2013 I am with Han, despite the still quite common agreement to open 44 in the minors with 1♦, this is an exception. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lelos80te Posted January 17, 2013 Report Share Posted January 17, 2013 I think that this hand should be opened 1C... If 4-4-4-1 use R-S, U-S (red singleton, under the singleton), B-S, M-S (black singleton, middle suit). (RonKlingerBridge.com) 1D. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted January 17, 2013 Report Share Posted January 17, 2013 If 4-4-4-1 use R-S, U-S (red singleton, under the singleton), B-S, M-S (black singleton, middle suit). (RonKlingerBridge.com) 1D.Do you think you can refute Han's argument by quoting Klinger, out of context and without any accompanying logic? The usual argument for opening 1♦ with a 1444 shape is that it allows you to rebid clubs without reversing. On this hand we don't intend to make a minimum rebid, so there is no benefit to opening 1♦. For the advantages of opening 1♣, see the part of Han's post that you didn't quote. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted January 17, 2013 Report Share Posted January 17, 2013 Do you think you can refute Han's argument by quoting Klinger, out of context and without any accompanying logic? The usual argument for opening 1♦ with a 1444 shape is that it allows you to rebid clubs without reversing. On this hand we don't intend to make a minimum rebid, so there is no benefit to opening 1♦. For the advantages of opening 1♣, see the part of Han's post that you didn't quote.I've actually had problems getting the hand across when partner responds 1♦ to 1♣ given the other structure of our system (3♠ is a void, 2♠ a completely different hand type and the GF 2N doesn't work for 4441s) so we open 1♦, if partner bids the major we have, we bid 3N to show a 4441 with support, if he bids the major we're short in we rebid a wide range 1N. We also like reverses to guarantee a 5th card in the suit opened without exception. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lowerline Posted January 17, 2013 Report Share Posted January 17, 2013 Rebid 2H. I think that this hand should be opened 1C. There can be hands and auctions where your rebid can be inconvenient after opening 1C with this shape, this is rarely the case when you are this strong. After 1C you have more room and you can easily find diamonds, while after 1D..2H it is really hard to find clubs. It is true you can forget about a club contract after 1♦-1♠-2♥. But how likely is it to find a diamond contract after 1♣-1♠-2♥? Because of the popularity of (T-)Walsh diamonds are often skipped after a 1♣ opening... Steven Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted January 17, 2013 Report Share Posted January 17, 2013 Maybe you can find a heart contract over 1♣ 1 ♠ 2 ♦ 2 ♥ or 2 NT? I found a lot of games in the fourth seat so far, it is not too problematic. Of course it is always easier if you have a fit in the first named suit. :) With a 1444 I am delighted if I can find ANY fit at all, so I would save as much space as possible- so I would try 2 ♦ not 2 ♥, yes this is just one step lower, but IF partner tries to force with 4. sf, he can do that much lower... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lycier Posted January 20, 2013 Author Report Share Posted January 20, 2013 Maybe open 1♣ and plan to reverse bid 2♦ is a good option,however,new problem will come out,can you promise the length of opening suit? your partner consider your hand with 5 card plus club suit at least.the problem will make more and more complicated. For me,I prefer wolff sign off,so I would rebid 2nt, 2nt is the most descriptive bid than other ones . Sometimes it is necessary to simplify the complicated problem. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jogs Posted January 20, 2013 Report Share Posted January 20, 2013 The real dilemma is fourth suit forcing is a lousy convention that everyone plays.It is overused.When the fourth bid is 2♦ or 2♣, that's is fourth suit forcing. Playall other fourth suits as natural. That would solve many problems.1♣-1♦, 1♥-1♠... natural.1♦-1♠, 2♣-2♥... natural. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted January 20, 2013 Report Share Posted January 20, 2013 The real dilemma is fourth suit forcing is a lousy convention that everyone plays.It is overused.When the fourth bid is 2♦ or 2♣, that's is fourth suit forcing. Playall other fourth suits as natural. That would solve many problems.1♣-1♦, 1♥-1♠... natural.1♦-1♠, 2♣-2♥... natural. Jogs, your stock is really rising around here. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
q0987 Posted January 20, 2013 Report Share Posted January 20, 2013 I'm a simple player and I don't play a lot of conventions, but with this hand like the 1 club opener. If partner bids 1 spade and I would reverse with 2 diamonds. Partner could have a 5 card spades suit with a 4 card heart suit. With a hand like this he can bid the hearts now. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
steve2005 Posted January 20, 2013 Report Share Posted January 20, 2013 2♥ - promise 1 more ♦2N - promise 1 more ♠3♣ - promise 1 more ♦ all have there flaws. i pick 2N as partner will only insist on ♠ with 6, a 6-1 4♠ wont be horrible. the real problem comes if partner goes slamming. this is a very low percent problem choose your rebid and accept the problem. if your that concerned play a roman type 2♦ or a multi 2♦ with strong 4441's worked in Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted January 20, 2013 Report Share Posted January 20, 2013 The real dilemma is fourth suit forcing is a lousy convention that everyone plays.It is overused.When the fourth bid is 2♦ or 2♣, that's is fourth suit forcing. Playall other fourth suits as natural. That would solve many problems.1♣-1♦, 1♥-1♠... natural.1♦-1♠, 2♣-2♥... natural.Where does 4th-suit-forcing ( artificial GF ) enter into this problem ? 1C - 1S2D (reverse) - 2H! = the more modern Lebensohl weakness bid, initiating a sign-off. - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - In jogs 2nd sequence ( 1D open ), is he suggesting that Opener make a NF limiting 2C rebid with OP's 19 hcp hand ?? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted January 21, 2013 Report Share Posted January 21, 2013 Jogs, your stock is really rising around here. Your post is upvoted twice but I don't understand it. Did you mean to say that you liked jogs' post? I didn't understand what jogs' post has to do with the posted hand, and I also didn't understand how 1D - 1S - 2C - 2H = natural could be a good treatment. Could one of you elaborate? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted January 21, 2013 Report Share Posted January 21, 2013 I thought you understood sarcasm, Han :) 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted January 21, 2013 Report Share Posted January 21, 2013 Do you think you can refute Han's argument by quoting Klinger, out of context and without any accompanying logic? The usual argument for opening 1♦ with a 1444 shape is that it allows you to rebid clubs without reversing. On this hand we don't intend to make a minimum rebid, so there is no benefit to opening 1♦. For the advantages of opening 1♣, see the part of Han's post that you didn't quote. I like being defended by the poster of the year! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted January 21, 2013 Report Share Posted January 21, 2013 I thought you understood sarcasm, Han :) Ah ok, I thought that perhaps it was an expression I didn't know. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rhm Posted January 21, 2013 Report Share Posted January 21, 2013 Do you think you can refute Han's argument by quoting Klinger, out of context and without any accompanying logic? The usual argument for opening 1♦ with a 1444 shape is that it allows you to rebid clubs without reversing. On this hand we don't intend to make a minimum rebid, so there is no benefit to opening 1♦. For the advantages of opening 1♣, see the part of Han's post that you didn't quote.I think there are benefits. You keep the bidding low, which is important when you want to bring all your suits into play no matter how strong you are. 4441 need delicate exploration. I think starting with 1♦ and following with 2♣ gives you the best chance not to loose any of your suits, without showing a 5 card minor.I believe a reverse should guarantee an anchor suit. Roth used to argue if I can get past this round (the second round 2♣), I am well placed. If partner passes 2♣ there is no guarantee that this is not the best contract, but I admit if he is weak and specifically 5♠=4♥=1♦=3♣ I might miss 4♥.If partner bids 2♦ - he will often give false preference if he has not a true one - you can bid 2♥, if partner bids 2♥, which is forcing, you can bid 3♥, which is also forcing and shows your distribution.If partner bids 2♠ I would content myself with 2NT, but 3NT is okay too. Rainer Herrmann Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted January 29, 2013 Report Share Posted January 29, 2013 I think that 1D - 1S - 2C - 2D - 2H is not forcing, but if you can survive the second and third rounds then you'll be in good shape. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rhm Posted January 29, 2013 Report Share Posted January 29, 2013 I think that 1D - 1S - 2C - 2D - 2H is not forcing, but if you can survive the second and third rounds then you'll be in good shape.A matter of agreement. 1D - 1S - 2C - 2D - 2H shows certainly extras. (I have no qualms rebidding 1NT with minimum hands and a singleton spade and 4 hearts) If you believe 1D - 1S - 2C - 2D - 2H should not be forcing, then 1D - 1S - 2C - 2D - 3H should show the same hand, only stronger. I think it is better to play 2H as forcing in this sequence.If 1D-1S-2H is forcing why not this sequence? Rainer Herrmann Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted January 29, 2013 Report Share Posted January 29, 2013 If 1D-1S-2H is forcing why not this sequence? Because 2C was non-forcing and responder did not show values by bidding 2D. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PhilKing Posted January 29, 2013 Report Share Posted January 29, 2013 Because 2C was non-forcing and responder did not show values by bidding 2D. Yep. I like the idea of playing 2♥ as a strong 4441 here, but if partner passes, I would assume that was a good thing. Say he has a 5323 5-7 count and we have a 1444 17-19, the chances of making any game must be slim. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted January 30, 2013 Report Share Posted January 30, 2013 I think 1♦-1♠;2♣-2♦;2♥ is non-game-forcing FSF, with something like a 2254 17-count. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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