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xx

K9xx

xxx

Axxx

 

1C-x-1D-1H

p-1S-p-?

 

imps, none vulnerable, 1C promised 2+ clubs, 1D was natural, x then 1S promises a good hand with 5 spades (it's not clear from your agreements how good exactly).

 

You do have a few 8's here and there but I don't remember.

 

edit: update, if you bid 1NT it will go on

 

1C-x-1D-1H

p-1S-p-1NT

2D-2H-p-?

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If we are momentarily concerned that 1N is an underbid, we only have to remember back to the fact that we chose to bid at all on the first round with 1H, after the responder took us off the hook.

 

1NT is exactly within our range and shape. We can now let partner worry about just how strong her double followed by spade bid was.

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Imo, I just barely had my 1NT bid. I had it, but nothing to spare. Now I suppose that partner has five spades and three hearts. I am passing. I expect maybe a doubleton diamond in the dummy. I would rather ruff diamonds with a heart from my three card holding instead of with a spade from a five card holding.

 

As far as I am concerned we are competing for a part score. If the opponents go on to 3 I am passing it out. If 2 gets doubled I am passing and hoping to make it.

 

Also if I pass, I get to play it.

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Agree with Ken that after the OP update partner is sounding like 5-3-2-3. But, unless she knee-jerked the original double, she also has about an 18+ opposite my 7 (not just any 7, but two primes).

 

Maybe it's time to torture partner with 3D. The thing pard didn't know when she bid 2H was whether I had 5 of them. I don't have 5, so I will let pard decide where our 25+ should play.

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x then 1S promises a good hand with 5 spades (it's not clear from your agreements how good exactly).

 

Agree with Ken that after the OP update partner is sounding like 5-3-2-3. But, unless she knee-jerked the original double, she also has about an 18+ opposite my 7 (not just any 7, but two primes).

Is partner's hand that good? I wonder. In any case, as Ken said, I have already bid this hand to the hilt. So the question is, does partner consider us to be in a game force? I am not sure, and I also worry that he will settle in 3NT with no diamond stop, or 4M on seven trumps. I think I pass.

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With a 5-bagger, semi-flat distribution, and less than 18 we overcall rather than double. The "knee-jerk" comment was referring to MY partner. If your agreements are to double first rather than overcall with less, your solution to this thread's questions will be different.
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Barely had our 1N call?? Sometimes we need to bid 1N on an ill-fitting hand like x QTxx xxxx Kxxx. Presumably with a 10 count and some 9's we are bidding 2, so I think we are much closer to 2N over 1 than passing 1.

 

What kind of hand does partner have for the double and then 1? After our 1N, he is supporting hearts, so the floor for this sequence dropped a little, but I wouldn't expect anything less than AQJxx Axx Kxx Kx.

 

I will make another grope with 2.

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I find the waters muddy indeed. I certainly prefer an overcall to a double when my majors are 5-3 unless my hand is so strong that I just cannot imagine making the overcall. I am less certain that the 2 ups the ante that much, maybe because I think the ante is fairly up there already. I can imagine partner thinink "I have a really good five card spade suit, and pretty good three card support for hearts. Partner might well have five, time for me to show my three. If pard can't stand it, he will take me back to spades". This is more competitive thinking than it is game try thinking.

 

I understand the argument for 2, or I think I understand it. And maybe I should do it. Still, I think I will pass.

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A mea culpa here. I somehow convinced myself that the opponents had found a diamond fit. No. Probably the opponents diamonds are 5-2. As I like to play, after 1-(X)-1-(1), a double is three card support for diamonds.Not everyone plays support doubles in diamonds. if the opponent's major is spades I don't play support since the X is needed to show hearts, but in the case at hand it seems reasonable for it to be support for diamonds. Anyway, even if they are not playing support doubles here, a 5-2 fit seems likely. So now pard has three diamonds, making a pass of 2 less appealing.

 

So I change my vote to 2. I suppose it is too late to ask for an undo.

 

Just out of curiosity: For my second call, over pard's 1, what would 2 be? My 1 bid has limited my hand. Can this be something like "I stop clubs, I don't stop diamonds, I don't have a clue as to where to play this hand"? I would consider this if after 2 it is ok for our auction to continue 2-2-Pass. Eg, pard doesn't stop diamonds either and 4 seems to be a bridge too far.

 

I am hoping to see what actually happened. I confess to being uncertain of what is best.

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I think we were too good for 1NT.

Normally I agree and indeed partner is showing a good hand.

However, doubling then bidding spades when your RHO opens 1 need not be the same powerhouse than holding hearts when RHO opens 1.

Also partner could have bid at his second turn 2.

 

1NT describes our hand well and if partner passes game should not be a good bet.

 

Rainer Herrmann

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2 is clearly not natural and 2 likely is natural. Your partner made a takeout double of 1. I'm surprised you even would question that. It seems to me like you are mixing this up with an auction like 1 p 1 1 p where 2 is natural and 2 is a cuebid since you didn't bid 1 before. That wouldn't apply here.
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Partner had AKQ9x Qxx KJ QTx, I passed and made 2=, the other table being in 3NT= (but the weak hand never bid diamonds so the strong hand had no reason to lead them).

Doesn't seem as if the weak hand would bid diamonds if partner overcalled 1S. Anyway, doubling with that hand knocks off my inferences from the auction.

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