Lord Molyb Posted December 23, 2012 Report Share Posted December 23, 2012 You're playing with a regular partner, and you pick up:[hv=pc=n&s=saqt9732ha5d92cak&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=3dp3sp4cp]133|200[/hv]IMPs4 clubs is natural, showing a 4 card suit.How will you bid? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted December 23, 2012 Report Share Posted December 23, 2012 Is 4♦ forcing? Can partner have ♦QJTxxx only? I'd like to be able to ask for KC but if I can't and partner cannot have such a bad suit I'll just bid 6♦ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lord Molyb Posted December 23, 2012 Author Report Share Posted December 23, 2012 Whether 4♦ is forcing is partnership agreement :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted December 23, 2012 Report Share Posted December 23, 2012 What is your preempting philosophy in this seat at this vul. If it's pretty classical, I'd have bid 4♥ kickback first time (I normally have the agreement that if you want to bid 4♥ to play you bid 3♥ then 4♥). I think 4♦ should be forcing over 3♠-4♣, but it makes things very murky as to what 4♥ and 4N are. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted December 23, 2012 Report Share Posted December 23, 2012 Whether 4♦ is forcing is partnership agreement :) Yes of course it is. You've said it's a regular partner, so why don't you tell us what the agreement is? You've already imposed a meaning for the 4C bid that isn't the one I play, so clearly you must have had some discussions about continuations after a pre-empt. (I play that 4C agrees spades, and I think that's a fairly common understanding) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lord Molyb Posted December 24, 2012 Author Report Share Posted December 24, 2012 The agreement is 4♦ nonforcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lycier Posted December 24, 2012 Report Share Posted December 24, 2012 4♦ is not a new suit,so nonforcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted January 16, 2013 Report Share Posted January 16, 2013 4♦ is not a new suit,so nonforcing.2♣ - 2♦ (positive);2♠ - 3♣;3♠ is not a new suit either. I suppose that is non-forcing too? We started with a new suit at the 3 level, expecting partner to bid game with basically any hand containing support. Whether a bid is forcing or not needs to be thought about within the context of the auction, not by some blind rule. Indeed, if 4♦ is non-forcing here then we appear to have all of.....zero(!) forcing bids available outside of 4♥ and 5NT...in a constructive auction. In return we cater nicely to the hand where we psyched 3♠ with a diamond fit and the opps are too bad to notice. Good tradeoff? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted January 16, 2013 Report Share Posted January 16, 2013 2♣ - 2♦ (positive);2♠ - 3♣;3♠ is not a new suit either. I suppose that is non-forcing too? We started with a new suit at the 3 level, expecting partner to bid game with basically any hand containing support. Whether a bid is forcing or not needs to be thought about within the context of the auction, not by some blind rule. Indeed, if 4♦ is non-forcing here then we appear to have all of.....zero(!) forcing bids available outside of 4♥ and 5NT...in a constructive auction. In return we cater nicely to the hand where we psyched 3♠ with a diamond fit and the opps are too bad to notice. Good tradeoff? Stupid example although there may be better ones, many people play 2♣ as GF except 2♣-2♦/♥whichever is the bad one-2N so the auction is already GF. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Siegmund Posted January 16, 2013 Report Share Posted January 16, 2013 I would assume 4D is NF -- a lot of hands bid 3S here expecting to take 10 tricks in something, wanting it to be spades if possible and diamonds if not. I will admit 6D is possible opposite some tip-top maximums but I can't see how I can justify bidding it. If partner has only one hole in trumps (KQJxxxx or similar) he won't have another working face card and I'll be needing 4-3 clubs + no early trump lead to kill the ruff + a spade finesse to make it. At IMPs, 5D rates to be safe most the time. At MP I would rebid 4S, going down opposite a void, but sneaking 420 past 400 a bit more than half the time. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
neilkaz Posted January 16, 2013 Report Share Posted January 16, 2013 The agreement is 4♦ nonforcing.Yuck !! EDIT: I strongly think that on a sequence like this 4♦ is best used to continue the search for best game/slam rather than to stop on a dime. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted January 16, 2013 Report Share Posted January 16, 2013 I would assume 4D is NF -- a lot of hands bid 3S here expecting to take 10 tricks in something, wanting it to be spades if possible and diamonds if not. I will admit 6D is possible opposite some tip-top maximums but I can't see how I can justify bidding it. If partner has only one hole in trumps (KQJxxxx or similar) he won't have another working face card and I'll be needing 4-3 clubs + no early trump lead to kill the ruff + a spade finesse to make it. At IMPs, 5D rates to be safe most the time. At MP I would rebid 4S, going down opposite a void, but sneaking 420 past 400 a bit more than half the time.You appear to have 3 side suit entries to dummy in diamonds, if they lead ace and another trump, a singleton spade in partner's hand may be all that's required. Even if partner is void there are still decent chances (3-3 or Kx either side). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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