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Response to 1H


squealydan

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I've just started playing 2 over 1 after years as an Acol 4-card-major-er.

 

Was playing with a better, and more experienced player than me, and I was surprised by one of his bids.

 

Sitting south, I opened 1H, pass from west, and my partner held :

 

Q.9.6.4

A.8.3

9.5.2

7.6.4

 

We have agreed that truly minimal hands with 3-card support may reply 1NT then give preference back to 2M, so 1M-2M tends to show a little bit of promise.

 

Just wondered what folk would reply with these cards?

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2H please, you even have an ace!

 

1NT then 2H is for hands that are weaker than this, the purpose being to discourage partner from bidding on while also discouraging opponents to interfere (in comparison to just passing over 1H that is). 1S then 2H is for similar hands but I think works best if you have 5 spades (then you can find a better fit).

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When I played this style, my limit for 2 was 8+, so this had been an easy 1 or 1 NT response with a later preference.

But why do you ask us? You need your own agreement, this is not really a judgement call, but a definition of the lower limit of a good raise.

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Thanks all for the replies.

 

I understand the rationale for 1NT rather than 2H. But I was surprised partner (and everyone here) just ignored 1. If partner is fairly minimal, a possible spade fit will get lost if I don't bid it now. I always thought it was better to be in a 4-4 fit than a 5-3?

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When your partner shows 5+ , it's pretty unlikely that (s)he also have 4+ Spades. You may have an Ace, but you only have 6 HCP, and you have the worst shape in a 4333. Let's not get partner too excited, that is why I would bid 1NT then give preference via 2.
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2H. You have a fit so show it! I hate this style where you bid 1NT on this hand as i really think you are playing 2 handed Bridge..

I am definately no fan of this constructive raise treatment either, but given the system the OP is playing, the 6 HCP 4333 hand is a clear minimum with no interest in accepting a game try so he should start with a forcing NT and then bid 2.

 

I'd not want to bid 1 and then 2 as it could sound too encouraging.

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I understand the rationale for 1NT rather than 2H. But I was surprised partner (and everyone here) just ignored 1. If partner is fairly minimal, a possible spade fit will get lost if I don't bid it now. I always thought it was better to be in a 4-4 fit than a 5-3?

 

It's not *always* better to be in a 4-4 fit than 5-3. It's *sometimes* better. And less often at the partial level, because some of the constructions for more tricks in the 4-4 fit involve discarding losers on the long cards of the 5-3 fit. At the partial level, the opponents rate to have already taken their side suit winners so there isn't anything useful left to discard by the time you've drawn trumps and established the 5 cd suit.

 

Furthermore, a lot of 5 cd major players like to raise 1s to 2s on *three* cards fairly often, especially with 35(14) minimums. This often works better when partner does have 5 spades, and if not the 4-3 often plays fairly well. But if this is the case, then responding 1s on a weak hand with 4-3 in the majors has now landed you in a 4-3 fit when you had a 5-3 fit available. Because of this, most 5cd major players, at least in America, ignore spades holding heart support, unless invitational+ strength, so that you can offer hearts again if partner raises. Also raising directly is more encouraging than a preference after 1h-1s-2c-2h, although that's more of a factor with the 8-9 pt hands rather than this bad 4333 6 count.

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