straube Posted November 8, 2012 Report Share Posted November 8, 2012 1st hand, imps, all vul, we open light (Precision) P P 2S ? A76 J9 AQ432 A32 2nd hand, imps, all white 2H P 3H ? AKQT7 86 AJ8 876 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
akhare Posted November 8, 2012 Report Share Posted November 8, 2012 1st hand, imps, all vul, we open light (Precision) 2H P 3H ? AKQT7 86 AJ8 876 Assume 2S is 3S on #2 ;)... 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted November 8, 2012 Report Share Posted November 8, 2012 Passing the first hand is gambling, I might do it on some circumstances Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOGIC Posted November 8, 2012 Report Share Posted November 8, 2012 Lho is a passed hand and his partner preempted, its not like he's doubling. I could see passing if it was p 2s ? since the risk is much higher but in this case the downside is low and the Likelihood of partner having a 9 or 10 count where we make Mae and he can't balance is higher. Hand 2 is a normal 3s, again we have low risk and might easily have a game and know partner has some values. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted November 9, 2012 Report Share Posted November 9, 2012 1-2NT 2-3♠ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
straube Posted November 9, 2012 Author Report Share Posted November 9, 2012 ok. Where is the cutoff for hand 2 though? Everyone bids 3S with hand 1. Do you do so with hand 2 or 3 or ? 1. AKQTx xx AJx xxx2. AKQTx xx Axx xxx3. AKQTx xx Kxx xxx4. AKQTx xx QTx xxx5. AKQTx xx J9x xxx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOGIC Posted November 9, 2012 Report Share Posted November 9, 2012 I would pass 4 and bid with 2 for sure. I suppose that makes somewhere around 3 the cutoff (I would bid with 3 personally). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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