dboxley Posted October 25, 2012 Report Share Posted October 25, 2012 [hv=pc=n&w=sakjhak743dq7caq3&e=sq985h982da964ct8&d=e&v=n&b=2&a=pp2cp2dd]266|200[/hv]2D is waiting, GF. What should the following rebids by West mean here?PRdbl2HWhat should West do now and how should the auction continue with no further interference? 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nigel_k Posted October 25, 2012 Report Share Posted October 25, 2012 I think pass and redouble should both be aiming at playing 2♦XX. Redouble with good diamonds and pass with not so good, but still decent, diamonds. You need to agree what the exact requirements are. For me, Qxx is enough to pass but not Qx unfortunately as it looks like 2♦XX would be good for an overtrick or two with slam in doubt. It is quite common that you can make in these situations. South might happily double with something like xx xx KJTxxx Kxx and find he can only take 4 tricks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted October 25, 2012 Report Share Posted October 25, 2012 A reasonable approach to this is to play XX as penalty, Pass as big balanced and 2NT as takeout. What that means in practise depends on what the double means. For example, if X showed diamonds then XX shows diamonds, Pass is balanced and 2NT is short diamonds (and 3♦ is logically majors). If X showed the majors then XX shows one or both majors and a desire to defend, Pass is balanced and 2NT is the minors. There are many more (and assuredly better) things you could do here but I doubt whether more complexity than this basic inversion is a good investment of effort for most players. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PhilKing Posted October 25, 2012 Report Share Posted October 25, 2012 In addition to the answers above, you could pass here (balanced) and pull a redouble to 2♥ to show strong bal with 5 hearts, not willing to play 2♦ redoubled. So 2♥ directly is unbalanced. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted October 25, 2012 Report Share Posted October 25, 2012 I would never guess my partner held the ♦ A 9 6 4 .....which means the the DBL was made in front of the 2C hand with K J 10 8 5 3 ( 2 ).Does the Doubler really want a ♦ lead if we win the contract ? Anyway, the Double has succeeded in talking me out of a 2NT rebid, and since I don't think he has a pathetic ♦ holding, I don't relish 2DXX winning for us .Sooo, I think I'd go with a 2H rebid. - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -Edit: another way of looking at this is that partner's 2D has promised at least an A or K ( or two Q ) .I would never guess the ♦A . The Doubler may only go down 1 redoubled ( 7 Diam tricks and out ) whereas we might have slam. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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