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4-0-6-3 after nt


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[hv=pc=n&s=s832hqj54daqjcaq9&n=sakj7hdk96543ckt2&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1np]266|200[/hv]

 

This hand popped up in a mp club game the other day and no one bid the slam, including some pretty good players. Thoughts or comments on how the bidding shoud go after S opens 1nt? Should N xfr or stayman? In either case, what are sensible continuations?

 

thx.

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I'd say stayman and 3 over 2. This should be natural and looking for slam (though some people might play FG and others might have relays after stayman). What should South do? He should overcome the MP setup and bid 4; After that it should be easy.
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Agreeing Hanoi5.

Adding that any opener who who chooses 3N responder must carry on.

1N-2

2-3

3N-4 seems clear. Followed by

5 - 6 (would not bid 5 unless confident pard KNOWS this is a control bid).

 

4 should be slammish and imply 4=6. A 5-loser opposite a 1N opener should reach 12 tricks unless pard holds wasted .

 

Some I know allow 4-card major after a transfer:

1N-2N

3*-3 (showing 6-4)

4-4 etc.

Here *=super accept - I like s.

 

Those of us playing splinter rebids over minor transfers usually won't have 4s, so transferring to and splintering 3 is not available to us (unless we are willing (?) to lose s.

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I try:

 

1 NT 2

2 3

3 4 (heart stopper, asking)

4 4 (Min, RCKB)

5 6 (2+Q)

 

Declarer knows that partner holds a minimum opening, two KCs- maybe including the ace of hearts. So the worst hand can be around xxx, AQJx,Qx,AQxx. This slam is far below average, but the hand can be much better, so I think slam is worth a shot.

 

I bet there are better agreements to find the slam, esp. if you do not use stayman. But I would surely first look for 6 before I try 6 . At imps, I doubt that the 4-4 spade fit would be superior and I can use a tool to show 6+ diamonds and short hearts.

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