RunemPard Posted October 23, 2012 Report Share Posted October 23, 2012 (edited) Was playing a team match the other week when a hand like this came up... xxQJxxxx-JT98x Sitting NV/V I decided to try a weak 2♥ opening with this hand. The problem was, that we were playing multi with intermediate 2s (11-14, 6H). The bidding had gone... 2♥-(P)-4♥-(X)P-(5♦)-X-(P)5♥-AP All bids were made in tempo. Directly after making my bid, I knew my mistake and tried to bid as if I had the hand I had shown. The opponents had said that if they had known that my hand was weak, they would have left the X in for penalty. The actual result was 5H-2, but I am more interested in rulings if I had decided to pass 5Dx for many back. Has there been any damage to the opponents in this case? How would you rule if the opponents had played 5Dx-? and wanted a ruling? Edited October 23, 2012 by RunemPard Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted October 23, 2012 Report Share Posted October 23, 2012 STOP lets back up do you have a standard 2h bid? if yes then pass If you have extras then bidding 5h is clear.... but at no point at no point do you say that Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RunemPard Posted October 23, 2012 Author Report Share Posted October 23, 2012 STOP lets back up do you have a standard 2h bid? if yes then pass If you have extras then bidding 5h is clear.... but at no point at no point do you say that Sorry I will edit the post. 2H/2S shows 11-14 and 6 card suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gordontd Posted October 23, 2012 Report Share Posted October 23, 2012 They wouldn't have had recourse on the grounds that your hand didn't fit the description, if the description was an accurate explanation of your agreement. They might have had recourse if your partner's double of 5D was slow, since I would imagine that pass is a logical alternative with your hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vampyr Posted October 23, 2012 Report Share Posted October 23, 2012 Was there an announcement, alert or explanation that would have clued you in to your agreement? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RunemPard Posted October 23, 2012 Author Report Share Posted October 23, 2012 Let me edit the post a little to make it more clear. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gordontd Posted October 23, 2012 Report Share Posted October 23, 2012 After making my bid, I knew my mistake and tried to bid as if I had the hand I had shown. The opponents had said that if they had known that my hand was weak, they would have left the X in for penalty. They are only entitled to know what your agreements are, not what is in your hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted October 23, 2012 Report Share Posted October 23, 2012 As Vampyr asks, did your partner announce or explain your bid in response to an opponent's question? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RunemPard Posted October 23, 2012 Author Report Share Posted October 23, 2012 As Vampyr asks, did your partner announce or explain your bid in response to an opponent's question? No, the opponents looked at our convention card. I was well aware of my mistake the second I placed my bid on the table. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mr1303 Posted October 23, 2012 Report Share Posted October 23, 2012 If you have no UI (from an explanation or hesitation from partner) then you are free to bid as you like. So I would rule no adjustment. The opponents are only allowed to know your agreements, not what is in your hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluejak Posted October 23, 2012 Report Share Posted October 23, 2012 To clarify: no infraction of Law, so no adjustment. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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