Phil Posted September 24, 2012 Report Share Posted September 24, 2012 Matchpoints ♠KJ9xxx ♥Kxx ♦Ax ♣Ax Partner opens a 15-17 1N. Your structure here is fairly standard, so there isn't a way to make a low level slam try in spades, much less balanced. Your plan? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted September 24, 2012 Report Share Posted September 24, 2012 2h then 4nt quant, if pard does not super accept. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ahydra Posted September 24, 2012 Report Share Posted September 24, 2012 "fairly standard" and we don't have 3S (or transfer-then-something) as a slam try? -.- Or Texas? I'm not sure I'd like to stop short of 6S with this. I'll try transfer then 4C (slight misdescription but that's why we normally have other slam try bids!). ahydra 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
billw55 Posted September 24, 2012 Report Share Posted September 24, 2012 2♥ transfer, followed by 4♠. For me this shows slam interest, since Texas transfer was not used. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted September 24, 2012 Report Share Posted September 24, 2012 2♥ transfer, followed by 4♠. For me this shows slam interest, since Texas transfer was not used. What he said... Seems the best way to 1. Show slam interest2. Show the sixth Spade3. Allow us to stay low if partner has a dead minimum Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted September 24, 2012 Report Share Posted September 24, 2012 Matchpoints Your structure here is fairly standard, so there isn't a way to make a low level slam try in spades, much less balanced. Your plan?True... That's why one can devise a structure where after the transfer, rebid 3C! = maybe artificial: 1NT - 2transf2M - 3C! ( may not be real Cl suit in which case is a long Major, GF, slammish, needing cuebids )?? 3D! = 1st step, agree Cl 3H! = 2nd step, agree Major ( no matter which Major ) 3S! = 3rd step, agree both3NT = agree neither Then Responder can show either the long Major, no real club suit, slammish or "clubs were real" . HOWEVER, I'd like my Major suit be better than KJ9-6th. Sooo, Mike's answer seems best ( 4NT Quant after the transfer ) . Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted September 24, 2012 Report Share Posted September 24, 2012 Sooo, Mike's answer seems best ( 4NT Quant after the transfer ) . 1. How many spades does this show?2. If you decide that you want to signoff in Spades, what contract are you playing in?3. In what way is this "best"? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted September 24, 2012 Report Share Posted September 24, 2012 1. How many spades does this show?2. If you decide that you want to signoff in Spades, what contract are you playing in?3. In what way is this "best"?Well, there is another way... hrothgar's "mild slam try"... which is probably better. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TimG Posted September 24, 2012 Report Share Posted September 24, 2012 What he said... Seems the best way to 1. Show slam interest2. Show the sixth Spade3. Allow us to stay low if partner has a dead minimumI understand that one concocted example does not prove anything, but give opener Qx AQx Kxxx Kxxx and I'd like my chances in 6N. My inclination would be to drive to slam and don't think a direct 6N is too far off base, especially if I don't have a way to show spades and then offer a choice of slams. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rmnka447 Posted September 24, 2012 Report Share Posted September 24, 2012 I'm a big fan of using Texas followed by 4 NT as always being RKCB for the transferred suit. It ought to work well here. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted September 25, 2012 Report Share Posted September 25, 2012 so we have: rkc force to slam\invite in s(6); pard denies super acceptinvite in s(5) or nt. pard denies super accept Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted September 25, 2012 Report Share Posted September 25, 2012 Matchpoints ♠KJ9xxx ♥Kxx ♦Ax ♣Ax Partner opens a 15-17 1N. Your structure here is fairly standard, so there isn't a way to make a low level slam try in spades, much less balanced. Your plan? I am not making a slam try, i have 15 hcp prime honors + 6 card suit which means we have at least an 8 card fit. I am bidding it BUBBA :P 4♥ texas followed by 4 NT. Transfer your worries to the guy on lead. I wouldnt waste pds energy to evaluate his hand and all. Think about this way, if my 6 card suit was a minor and if i opened thsi hand 1NT pd inviting with 4 NT, wouldn't i accept it ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted September 25, 2012 Report Share Posted September 25, 2012 I am not making a slam try, i have 15 hcp prime honors + 6 card suit which means we have at least an 8 card fit. I am bidding it BUBBA :P 4♥ texas followed by 4 NT. Transfer your worries to the guy on lead. I wouldnt waste pds energy to evaluate his hand and all. Think about this way, if my 6 card suit was a minor and if i opened thsi hand 1NT pd inviting with 4 NT, wouldn't i accept it ? ace you understand that is rkc not quant. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted September 25, 2012 Report Share Posted September 25, 2012 ace you understand that is rkc not quant. I am not making a slam try, :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted September 25, 2012 Report Share Posted September 25, 2012 True... That's why one can devise a structure where after the transfer, rebid 3C! = maybe artificial: You probably know by now that I play something related to this. Mine runs 1NT - 2♥; 2♠ - 3♣ = spades and diamonds* or strong slam try in spades. Then 3♦ = diamond support (3♠ now shows the 1-suiter)3♥ = neither (3♠ now shows the 1-suiter)3♠ = agrees spadesothers show a potential double-fit (* Note: it makes no difference whether you invert the minors here; there is no overall gain when the major is spades) I think this is better as your 3NT response effectively robs the strong one-suiter of the cue-bidding space it requires. I'm a big fan of using Texas followed by 4 NT as always being RKCB for the transferred suit. It ought to work well here.An alternative is to use the first step after the transfer as RKCB, ie 1NT - 4♦; 4♥ - 4♠ = RKCB for hearts. This gives you an extra step. It also meshes well with Kickback for those that play it. Back to the OP, I am interested what "fairly standard" might mean in this context. In the UK, fairly standard would be that a 3M response is natural and slammy. I have said before that any 1NT structure that does not include a bid for this hand type is seriously flawed in my book. Using these 3M bids for something like splinters just seems to me to be putting the cart before the horse. Similarly, I always thought the transfer and bid 4 = mild slam try method was only on when we are both playing Texas and have an alternative route to show a strong slam try. That said, if I really agreed to play a system with nothing in-between a mild slam try and a slam drive then I think I am going to prefer the latter on this hand. I cannot say I am happy about it though. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 25, 2012 Report Share Posted September 25, 2012 I understand that one concocted example does not prove anything, but give opener Qx AQx Kxxx Kxxx and I'd like my chances in 6N. My inclination would be to drive to slam and don't think a direct 6N is too far off base, especially if I don't have a way to show spades and then offer a choice of slams. blasting 6NT looks so terrible when partner can have KQx/xxx in the minors. IF blasting something it would be 6♠ I wanna declare this one. I would bid 3♠ on my methods wich is suposed to be something like this, but assuming it is not there start with a transfer then 3♣ and lets see what partner has to say. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted September 25, 2012 Author Report Share Posted September 25, 2012 Not a good day for slams. This hand transferred and bid 4N. Opener accepted to 6N with Ax Qxx KJxxx KQJ, but maybe thats too aggressive. Both pointed Q's were onside, but spades were 4-1 and diamonds were 5-1. Is it that wacky to actually try to discover key cards along the way? One player bid 3N over 1N. Some think he had a wire. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
quiddity Posted September 25, 2012 Report Share Posted September 25, 2012 Think about this way, if my 6 card suit was a minor and if i opened thsi hand 1NT pd inviting with 4 NT, wouldn't i accept it ? Does your partner generally invite with good 14-counts? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted September 25, 2012 Report Share Posted September 25, 2012 Is it that wacky to actually try to discover key cards along the way? Thats what i did, texas followed by rkcb. Whether i would bid the slam or not missing a keycard + trump Q is another story. I would love to say i would stay out of it, but that would probably depend on how we are doing so far in the match (or session if its pairs) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted September 26, 2012 Author Report Share Posted September 26, 2012 Thats what i did, texas followed by rkcb. Whether i would bid the slam or not missing a keycard + trump Q is another story. I would love to say i would stay out of it, but that would probably depend on how we are doing so far in the match (or session if its pairs) You had about an 80% game coming into this round (maybe 30% of the boards were played). Things got flat, and a few bad results saw you finish at 62%. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bigbenvic Posted September 26, 2012 Report Share Posted September 26, 2012 See this is a hand I want to play, KJxxxx Kxx Ax Ax no lead can be that bad for me, can it? If pards plays it we might be off the first 2 with AQ ♥ offside. I want to start 3♠ hear pards response, and then keycard. I'm bidding six spades and as long as pards has 2 keycards I'm in 6. yes it could be wrong but given the limited agreements I'm hapy to apologise to partner if wrong. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted September 26, 2012 Author Report Share Posted September 26, 2012 See this is a hand I want to play, KJxxxx Kxx Ax Ax no lead can be that bad for me, can it? If pards plays it we might be off the first 2 with AQ ♥ offside. I want to start 3♠ hear pards response, and then keycard. I'm bidding six spades and as long as pards has 2 keycards I'm in 6. yes it could be wrong but given the limited agreements I'm hapy to apologise to partner if wrong. 3♠ for us would show a 1=3(45) shape. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CSGibson Posted September 26, 2012 Report Share Posted September 26, 2012 mild slam invite, balanced with 6+ spades, seems like the best description. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted September 26, 2012 Report Share Posted September 26, 2012 (edited) mild slam invite, balanced with 6+ (broken) spades, seems like the best description.Phil didn't have that available. Old fashioned Walsh did. 3S (broken, maybe only five) 3N (only two spades)4S (6 of them) Pass with the given opener, since we must be off a couple critical cards and opener doesn't have a super five-bagger in one of the other suits for 6 NT. The mild slam tries which started with non-texas and then bid four showed better spades than this, and IMO there is nothing "mild" about this hand's slam try, and quants which do not show the sixth spade seem ill-advised. Edited September 27, 2012 by aguahombre Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted September 26, 2012 Report Share Posted September 26, 2012 side note, given this is MP after: 1nt=2h2s=4nt(quant)? should opener pass?in other words at MP do we want to be more conservative in bidding slams compared to imps? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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