campboy Posted October 3, 2012 Report Share Posted October 3, 2012 "Gross" is the difference between the hand in question and the pair's actual agreements, not the difference between the hand and the minimum permitted agreements. If a pair says that their agreement is 8+ points and rule of 18 and this was a deviation then the TD might suspect that actually the hand was simply good enough to open in their methods, in which case those methods are not permitted. On the other hand if a pair claim to play very sound openings, that this hand is at least a king short of what they would normally need and that they opened it as a psyche, then it is much less likely that they have an implicit agreement to open this sort of hand. As to the problems with enforcing the regulation when players can hide behind not having an agreement, I do not find it at all believable that a pair can play together for more than a couple of sessions and not have at least an implicit agreement on what constitutes a minimum opening. The question then becomes whether the hand is consistent with their implicit agreement or not, and in VixTD's case it seems very likely that it was. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
VixTD Posted October 3, 2012 Report Share Posted October 3, 2012 So doing it constitutes having an agreement to do it?I haven't said that. I said that I may consider that they have an agreement if I believe one or both of them do it with appreciable frequency. The fact that they've done it, and the answers to my questions, help me to decide how likely they are to do it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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