RunemPard Posted September 15, 2012 Report Share Posted September 15, 2012 ♠: 2♥: AT762♦: Q42♣: AQ73 ♠: 4♥: QJ543♦: AKT7♣: K42 First hand opens the bidding... (0314 w/ splinter used)1♥-3♠*4♣*-4♦*4N-5♦5♥-?? (1430 w/ splinter used)1♥-3♠*4♣*-4♦*4N-5♣5♦/♥-??Can we even really ask about the Q? What if we are missing 2 side aces? (any A? w/ 2/1 GF used rather than a splinter)1♥-2♦3♦-3♥3♠*-4♣*4N-?? Should the K of ♦ be a key?Should we avoid using RKC and continue control bidding in all? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 15, 2012 Report Share Posted September 15, 2012 Do we want to play it?No, because we miss 2 keycards. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RunemPard Posted September 15, 2012 Author Report Share Posted September 15, 2012 More thinking let's say we knew which key partner has, the other ace and QJxxx of H. We are playing at a local club of varying skill levels. Do we want to take the slightly above 50% slam try? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 15, 2012 Report Share Posted September 15, 2012 More thinking let's say we knew which key partner has, the other ace and QJxxx of H. We are playing at a local club of varying skill levels. Do we want to take the slightly above below 50% slam try? No Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PhilKing Posted September 16, 2012 Report Share Posted September 16, 2012 Only if we are the weakest pair in the field. So call that a "maybe". :( 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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