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One hand I'm wild, the next I'm a wimp


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We had a great game of teams this evening but I wonder whether I could have done better these two hands.

 

1) KQJ109x AK x AQxx

 

You open 2D (GF or nearly with , or BAL) and it goes:

 

2D-2H (6+ HCP or positive, so GF)

2S (5+ spades)-3S (spades agreed, unspecified first round control)

 

Do you go for slam?

 

2) 8xxx QJ10x AQ8x A

 

Lots of points in the deck, it appears:

 

[hv=pc=n&e=s8532hqjt5daq83ca&d=e&v=0&b=14&a=1d1n2c2hppdp2s3hpp]133|200[/hv]

 

1D is the systemic opener holding 4441 with black singleton. Opps 1NT is 15-17. Pass, double, or "I would have passed 2HX"?

 

Thanks,

 

ahydra

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1) If I understand correctly, partner likes spades and promises 1+ first round controls? Heck yes. 4 next, then 4 over partner's 4, which should get 5c from partner if he has a club card. If I was more clever, I'd avoid cueing clubs and try to look like someone with a club problem, for the lead. I'm not good enough yet to stop pushing for pushy slams.

 

2) I would be very unhappy if partner held this hand and didn't hit this on this auction. I would take it as more of an observation on my defensive skills than a difference in hand evaluation. :)

 

Brian Zaugg

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absolutely make a slam try with 4c and if p bids 4d bid 4h this will let your p know

not only do u have slam interest but all the side suits are controlled. If p now subsides

in 4s then pass youve let your p know u need more stuff than just the dia A and a side Q.

 

 

 

p hand is severly limited by the 2c bid so while 5 tricks seem likely i have trouble envisioning

a 6th defensive trick so running from 2h x is not unreasonable. 2s is unlikley to be correct since

if p had spades they could easily have bid 2s themselves vs x. We survived the 2s bid and now

4h back to us is getting the hammer from me. If p x did not mean they are near the top of their

2c bid we are rarely going to get these kinds of auctions right without further discussion.

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1- I would definetely bid slam w/o much f@#$%&@ arround. Why let RHO dbl 4 cue by pd when pd has something like xxx QJxxx AJx Jx ? Maybe LHO will make an agressive lead under his king of not knowing that out suit is blocked.

 

6

 

2-I disagree with Hog that our DBL is penalty suggestion. It IS penalty and that is what would do.

 

DBL.

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On the first one, I've already shown a single-suited game forcing hand, similar to 2C-2D-2S in standard, right? If that's what I've shown, then partner will know to cooperate with an ace and the king of clubs or two aces as long as I cue-bid, so that's what I am going to do. 4, with the intent of bidding 4 over 4, psssing 4, and bidding 6 over 5. If we have the agreement that 3N is a forward-going slam move requiring the cheapest A or K cue, then I would be ok with that too. I am not ok with just blasting slam or bidding blackwood, however, since 1) there is an intelligent way to diagnose whether slam is good, and 2) players are less likely to lead away from kings into 2 openers in general.

 

On the 2nd, a penalty double is pretty obvious - partner was prepared for you to pass his double last time with an appropriate 4 card holding in hearts, now they are a level higher and you still have a likely 2 heart tricks.

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On the first one, I've already shown a single-suited game forcing hand, similar to 2C-2D-2S in standard, right?

 

Not quite - the minimum for the bid is a hand that is nearly GF (~8 playing tricks), but it's unlimited.

 

To the hog - I can't really bid 2NT over 3S, sorry :) Did you mean 3NT? No idea how partner would take it, I will ask him.

 

The auction finished

4C-4D (cue; cue)

4NT-5D (RKC spades; 1 or 4)

6S

 

Partner's hand was 7xx J109xx Axx Jx and the slam was barely over 50% - it actually had no chance with the CK offside, spades 4-0 and hearts 5-1. I feel like I already showed my hand with 2S and should not have bid 4C, but everyone here is suggesting 4C is right and I should bid 4H next to give partner a chance to sign off - I think I agree.

 

Actually we both forgot the system :), partner should have gone via 2NT to show a weaker hand and then I would know he can't have an ace + the CK.

 

On the second hand I passed. Yes, I'm a wimp :) The reason being I was using Roland Wald's "don't double a partscore into game at teams if it's not going 2 off" and couldn't convince myself it was going 2 off - 1 off seemed likely, e.g. with South holding QJxx Axx KJx KJx, North the SA and HK, partner the CQ and SK, then we make no spades, 2H, 1D and 2C. I was certainly doubling at MPs, but should have gone for it here as well because there were so few layouts where it would actually make.

 

As it happens the actual layout was (seems I also forgot West dealt):

 

[hv=pc=n&s=sakqha52djt43cj86&w=sjt43h7d986ckqt92&n=s92hk9863dk7c7543&e=s8765hqjt4daq52ca&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=pp1d1n2c2hppdp2s3hppp]399|300[/hv]

 

and I looked like a right idiot when we scored up +150. Somehow team-mates brought in +140 though!

 

ahydra

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Instead of 4 I would bid 3NT to ask, then 4 as last train. If partner's first round control is trumps I would bid 5 over it suggesting I need something in clubs.

 

Maybe using 3NT as as a relay is beyond this forum level, but OP's agreements seem very complex anyway, so it should be in context.

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