MinorKid Posted September 14, 2012 Report Share Posted September 14, 2012 1♦ - 1♥ - 2♦ - 3♦ (invitational) - 3NT - 4♦1♦ - 2♣ - 2♦ - 3♦ (invitational) - 3NT - 4♦ 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted September 14, 2012 Report Share Posted September 14, 2012 Could you construct a hand for us where Responder would want to look for slam here? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted September 14, 2012 Report Share Posted September 14, 2012 Do you play 3♦ as invitational, but no stronger? I guess so, if it may be passed, and therefore I would read 4♦ as still game invitational in diamonds, but hates NT. Void in a side suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Quantumcat Posted September 14, 2012 Report Share Posted September 14, 2012 If 3♦ was non-forcing, he can't possibly have slam values. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted September 14, 2012 Report Share Posted September 14, 2012 In the second sequence, was 2♣ game forcing? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Quantumcat Posted September 14, 2012 Report Share Posted September 14, 2012 In the second sequence, was 2♣ game forcing?The rebid is marked invitational. If he meant invitational to slam, he wouldn't be asking the question of whether 4♦ was forcing :-) 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ggwhiz Posted September 14, 2012 Report Share Posted September 14, 2012 In my experience, nobody pulls a game to a partscore without serious intent except for the ones that can't stand notrump but forgot to bid 4♦ instead of 3 AND forgot to just bid 5. Since 3♦ was passable I take it as a mild slam try, almost help suit in responders first bid in case we can run both suits and IF I'm game for that we need to cuebid and find the perfect fit control wise. ie. ♠xx ♥x ♦Axxx ♣KQ10xxx on #2 only needs the black Aces plus Kxxxxx of diamonds and a 3nt bid has more than that but where is it? ps. I think that 4nt by opener should be to play. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted September 14, 2012 Report Share Posted September 14, 2012 In my experience, nobody pulls a game to a partscore without serious intent except for the ones that can't stand notrump but forgot to bid 4♦ instead of 3. Since 3♦ was passable I take it as a mild slam try, almost help suit in responders first bid in case we can run both suits and IF I'm game for that we need to cuebid and find the perfect fit control wise. ie. ♠xx ♥x ♦Axxx ♣KQJxxx on #2 only needs the black Aces plus Kxxxxx of diamonds and a 3nt bid has more than that but where? ps. I think that 4nt by opener should be to play. I don't understand the logic of "since 3D was passable I take it as a mild slam try". If 3D was passable you can't have a slam try. Your example hand looks like a game force to me, but if I bid like that I would pass 3NT; by not game forcing I was gambling partner had soft stuff in the majors, and I haven't learnt anything new. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ggwhiz Posted September 15, 2012 Report Share Posted September 15, 2012 I don't understand the logic of "since 3D was passable I take it as a mild slam try". If 3D was passable you can't have a slam try. Your example hand looks like a game force to me, but if I bid like that I would pass 3NT; by not game forcing I was gambling partner had soft stuff in the majors, and I haven't learnt anything new. Fair ball but I don't think opener even promises a 6th diamond or extra values for a 2♦ call if their shape is 4-3-5-1 until they bid 3nt. The logic I don't understand is pulling a game contract to a partscore to play after inviting game with a non 4♦ bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lowerline Posted September 19, 2012 Report Share Posted September 19, 2012 1♦ - 1♥ - 2♦ - 3♦ (invitational) - 3NT - 4♦1♦ - 2♣ - 2♦ - 3♦ (invitational) - 3NT - 4♦ You have answered the question yourself. If 3♦ was invitational, 4♦ can not be slam going. That said, I think it doesn't make sense to play 3♦ invitational in the 2nd sequence... Steven 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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