jallerton Posted September 14, 2012 Report Share Posted September 14, 2012 However one plays it, the One Spade response to One Club is the Achilles Heel of Transfer Walsh. Hands that would have started 1♣-1♦1♥, for instance now have to bid rebid 1NT, 2♣ or 2♥ over 1♠. An attractive solution, particularly if One Spade promises diamonds, is to play transfer reverses: 2♦ = hearts2♥ = spades2♠ = diamonds (direct 3♦ weak) Over 2♦ and 2♥ responder just completes to two of the major with a minimum response with 3-card support, so with a 2425 17 count opposite a 3352 6-count, you can stop in a decent contract. The method allows you to reverse pretty light, taking the pressure off the 1NT and 2♣ rebids. I like it! This frees up 1♣-1♠-3M for single-suited club hands. Or you could extend the transfers rebids and play 1♣-1♠-2♠ as a transfer rebid in clubs (possibly FG) and 1♣-1♠-3♣ as the good diamond raise, retaining 1♣-1♠-3M as splinters agreeing ♦. I'm less keen on playing 1♣-1♠-2♦ as strong balanced because then either you have dangers of wrong-siding NT or you have to use a sometimes convoluted system of retransfers later. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PhilKing Posted September 15, 2012 Report Share Posted September 15, 2012 @adebisi - I agree the some versions of T-Walsh work best if you open 1D with 4D5C - indeed, for a while I played a method that opened 1D with 4D6C - but it's certainly an overbid to imply that it is necessary to open 1D playing T-Walsh. My two preferred methods handle 4D5C brilliantly well through the 1C opening. Let's keep this one under our hat, shall we? I don't think we should tell them everything ... 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted September 15, 2012 Report Share Posted September 15, 2012 I'm less keen on playing 1♣-1♠-2♦ as strong balanced because then either you have dangers of wrong-siding NT or you have to use a sometimes convoluted system of retransfers later.I would have thought that the bigger danger of wrong-siding NT is that there does not seem to be a bid for a balanced less than invitational responder other than 1NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Quantumcat Posted September 15, 2012 Report Share Posted September 15, 2012 It would be nice if someone came out with a good book on these methods.I found the article. Here it is:http://www.australianbridge.com/article_39-1_transfers.pdf 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Adebisi Posted September 15, 2012 Report Share Posted September 15, 2012 1c-1S-2D doesent wrongsiding NT: u play 2H as inv to 3NT( with min opener bids 2NT), 2S is TRF to 2NT( bids after 2NT are free to use and direct bids after 2D are also ):) 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted September 16, 2012 Report Share Posted September 16, 2012 1c-1S-2D doesent wrongsiding NT: u play 2H as inv to 3NT( with min opener bids 2NT), 2S is TRF to 2NT( bids after 2NT are free to use and direct bids after 2D are also ):)Very sensible, but my partners would call this "a sometimes convoluted system of retransfers later". They would be bound to get mixed up and making the wrong bid is critical. Fine if you both have memories, and you don't feel Alzheimer's is fast approaching. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted September 16, 2012 Report Share Posted September 16, 2012 Let's keep this one under our hat, shall we? I don't think we should tell them everything ...So don't tell us everything, just the bid you make to show a 13 count xx45 when partner has denied a major with 1♠ or 1NT or whatever your balanced hand response is ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PhilKing Posted September 16, 2012 Report Share Posted September 16, 2012 So don't tell us everything, just the bid you make to show a 13 count xx45 when partner has denied a major with 1♠ or 1NT or whatever your balanced hand response is ? I would rebid 2c non-descriptive, just like everyone else, since I play 1S as no major rather than diamonds as in MickyB TriBal deluxe. 1NT would show a weak NT for me. But 45mm weak is almost impossible given the opponents failure to overcall unless partner has enough to bid again. 4M5c is much more likely. After 1c-1d, 1NT would show 45 in the minors and 11-14 though. :) 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted September 18, 2012 Report Share Posted September 18, 2012 In my methods the auction 1♣ - 1♠; 2♦ is GF, Opener has 15-17 balanced with no 5 card major; Responder has 9+ and no 4+ card major. The structure I play here ought to be adaptable to Opener being big and balanced if that also establishes a game force. 2♥ = 4-3, 4-4, 5-3 or 5-4 in the minors (Minor Suit (Puppet) Stayman in effect)2♠ = puppet to 2NT (to play 3NT; or 33(25); or to ask for a major suit stopper)2NT = 5+-5+ in the minors3m = 6+ in m (Frivolous + cues)3M = splinter3N = to play I don't think this is particularly complicated and it covers everything. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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