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Question on an auction


davesayc

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Although 18-19 is "correct," from a definitional standpoint, I have often wondered as to the utility of that call. It comes up so rarely, and there are often solutons with that strong of a hand anyway, should 1NT mean something else.

 

For example, wouldn't it be nice for 1-(1M)-P-P-1NT to show something like a true club suit with the other major, rather than simply takeout? I mean, contrast (after 1-(1)-P-P-?) these two hands:

 

xx AKxx AQx J10xx

 

xx AKxx x AQJ10xx

 

Give partner Axx xxx xxxxx Kx...

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This 18-19 hands seems to come up a lot to me after this bidding and even more often after 1m- (pass) pass (some bid)

 

And in Kens examples I would X with the first and bid 2 with the second. Should work good enough. Or is it well enough?

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Best is 1NT two-way:

 

18-19 bal or

void in their suit, minimum values, can't stand a penalty pass

 

This treatment comes with a guarantee that partner will be able to work out which hand-type you have except against people who make psychic passes of overcalls.

 

But I guess it won't make it into the next SAYC update ...

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Perhaps an interesting question is what 1 - (1M) - P - (P); 1NT should mean in a limited opening system (Precision, Polish, etc).

In Polish, 1 could still be 17 points (and arguably the upper limit should be higher since 1-1-1[2di] is artificial so 18-20 hands with primarily diamonds can be awkward).

 

So I think that in Polish Club, 1NT could still be naturalish even though the 1 opening denies a balanced hand.

 

In Precision I think it should be 54, then you bid 2 with 45.

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