firmit Posted September 1, 2012 Report Share Posted September 1, 2012 Hi It's been a long time since I last posted here - thought I'd share a hand, which me and my new partner did not quite agree on which route to take.[hv=pc=n&s=sk542hakq82d8ct43&n=saj93hdj942ckq852]133|200|North dealer[/hv]We are trying out transfer bids over 1♣. We started like this1♣-1♦1♠-2♦3♦ What does 3♠ actually mean here? What type of 3NT would "fit" best here?How would you bid this hand? I question whether 2♦ is correct - what would 3 show; jump i 4th suit? Must be mini-splinter of some sort, right? But I am not sure I like the range, as the bid is limit or strong slam interest. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted September 1, 2012 Report Share Posted September 1, 2012 Opener effectively splintered, even if he was unaware of the fit, so slow this boy down. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TimG Posted September 1, 2012 Report Share Posted September 1, 2012 Didn't the auction effectively go 1♣-1♥; 1♠-2♦; 3♦ in standard methods? Doesn't a jump in the 4th suit show an invitational hand? I wouldn't expect 3♦ instead of 2♦ to be a splinter. 3♠ by responder now shows GF with 4-card spade support. Opener has shown some diamond length, but no real stopper, with 3♦. I would expect 3N by responder here to show similar in diamonds, xxx probably being sufficient for NT opposite what opener has shown. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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