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What to do with this


  

34 members have voted

  1. 1. Pick your option

    • Pass
      2
    • 1S
      28
    • 1NT
      1
    • Other
      3


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Yes, this is the right hand. I only mentioned Drury for the purposes of complete information. It's true, it shouldn't be an issue on this hand.
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Yes, this is the right hand. I only mentioned Drury for the purposes of complete information. It's true, it shouldn't be an issue on this hand.

 

OK, thanks. Curious to see the issues here or why this hand was posted.

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i dont think the question is totally ridiculous from a bidding standpoint.

My main reason for bidding 1s is that spades might be our only contract

where my hand is worth 3 tricks. I would not Auto bid 1s with this distribution

if my spades were not robust. They are this hand so i bid 1s.

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As the odd one out, I vote "other".

 

We play system on over a Dbl, which means that with a strong balanced hand I bid normally and don't XX as some might. Doubling opponents for penalty at the 2 level is rarely profitable, and there is no other reason for a classic strength redouble. This means XX assumes the default meaning of SOS - "whatever you do, please bid a different suit if you can".

 

I have a weak hand, and if partner has another suit, it is likely to play better than hearts. Moreover, if I had bid 1 and partner bids 1NT, I have no way of showing both minors, and I would rather play in 2 of a minor than 1NT.

 

With my minors, everything parter has is likely to be sat on by my RHO, so even if partner has a strong hand game is not such a good idea. And redouble does not stop him bidding 2NT strong, or, indeed, 1 if he has spades.

 

All considered, this seems like an excellent hand for the SOS redouble if you play it.

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You have a normal spade suit, playable even if spades split 4-1.

You have no great desire to play 1 doubled, which might happen if you pass.

You have a desire for a spade lead should LHO bid something.

 

So, what on earth is the issue?!?!?

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If Partner rebids 1NT, he has a 1NT rebid. If partner has four of a minor, he will bid a minor.

Unfortunately things like Gazzilli have their price.

Well, we seem to be discussing the OP, here. Gadgets were not specified which have any relevance to the responses. Thus far, other posters have stayed focussed ---not mentioning their favorite toys after 1MX. E.G., XX replaces 1 in our world, but with this hand we are showing our spade response however that is done. We are not passing, and we are not bypassing.

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OK, thanks. Curious to see the issues here or why this hand was posted.

 

 

I'll join in the chorus 1, what else?

 

 

Pretend Partner opened 1H. Would you respond 1s? Did the double take up some room so you couldn't do that?

 

 

1S is obvious. I do not see the problem on this hand.

 

 

You have a normal spade suit, playable even if spades split 4-1.

You have no great desire to play 1 doubled, which might happen if you pass.

You have a desire for a spade lead should LHO bid something.

 

So, what on earth is the issue?!?!?

 

These responses strike me as willfully obtuse. Would you also respond if the two jacks were replaced with small cards? We still have a normal playable spade suit, we still want a spade lead. At some point, the fact that we're responding with a weak misfit red at matchpoints is an issue. If you think the cutoff is 7 points rather than 6 or 6 points rather than 5 then fine, go ahead and say that. Don't act like OP is an idiot for asking or that you don't understand the problem, it makes you look ridiculous. It makes you look as though you never considered that partner might not have spades and that if he has to rebid 1nt or 2H it might not be so great for us.

 

Say you pass and LHO bids 1S or even 2S. Are you now sad that you didn't respond and you have to defend instead of declare? Say he bids 2m and partner doesn't make a noise. Are you sad to defend against the vul opps in their 7 card fit? Say he bids 1nt. Which distribution of tricks makes it better for us to declare 1nt rather than defend?

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These responses strike me as willfully obtuse.

 

Because the answer is obvious.

 

Would you also respond if the two jacks were replaced with small cards?

 

No, but the fact that you can make a minimum response into a different call by removing two Jacks isn't a Nobel winning idea.

 

We still have a normal playable spade suit, we still want a spade lead.

 

Maybe we'd like partner to lead his heart suit so we can get some ruffs or uppercuts. I also wasn't aware I was making a lead director; I'd bid 1 on Jxxxx too.

 

At some point, the fact that we're responding with a weak misfit red at matchpoints is an issue. If you think the cutoff is 7 points rather than 6 or 6 points rather than 5 then fine, go ahead and say that.

 

This is just a repeat of what you said earlier.

 

Don't act like OP is an idiot for asking or that you don't understand the problem, it makes you look ridiculous.

 

LOL, who ever accused the OP of being an idiot? FWIW, the OP has been on the forums for a long time. While he will not be winning the Bermuda Bowl anytime soon, he seems like a reasonable player. And he is most certainly not an idiot, which is more than I can say for many around here.

 

These are your words, and you choose to those who claim this problem is 'obvious' are being malicious for implying something that is not there.

 

I don't understand the problem BECAUSE THERE ISN'T A PROBLEM, not become I'm dense, thick or "ridiculous".

 

It makes you look as though you never considered that partner might not have spades and that if he has to rebid 1nt or 2H it might not be so great for us. Say you pass and LHO bids 1S or even 2S. Are you now sad that you didn't respond and you have to defend instead of declare? Say he bids 2m and partner doesn't make a noise. Are you sad to defend against the vul opps in their 7 card fit? Say he bids 1nt. Which distribution of tricks makes it better for us to declare 1nt rather than defend?

 

This is the only (partially) substantive thing you've said. Sure, if partner rebids 2 or 1N I'm not ecstatic, but if he rebids 2m, or raises spades, or even passes we've probably found a better spot. Would I prefer defending 2m if I passed? I don't think thats an unreasonable view, however, why do I think this is a steaming misfit? Why do I need to mastermind with a pass with might be the weakest hand at the table?

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These are your words, and you choose to those who claim this problem is 'obvious' are being malicious for implying something that is not there.

 

Fair criticism. I assumed people were just pretending not to understand the problem with responding here, since the problems seem pretty obvious to me. We're weak, and RHO's double means our chances of game and of finding a fit are reduced. We're vul and the opps are vul.

 

I'm not confident that passing is best but it feels pretty close. Certainly close enough that I'm amazed at comments like " What are the issues??!?" and "Curious why this hand was posted" and "THERE ISN'T A PROBLEM". Do you really think that downgrading a misfit 7-count is masterminding?

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I'm not confident that passing is best but it feels pretty close. Certainly close enough that I'm amazed at comments like " What are the issues??!?" and "Curious why this hand was posted" and "THERE ISN'T A PROBLEM". Do you really think that downgrading a misfit 7-count is masterminding?

 

Its really not close. You could still easily be making game in spades: Axxx Axxxx KQx A. Or you could be making 3N opposite 18-19 balanced. Passing here is bizarre. There is just so much upside here.

 

Even without the jacks I would still bid. You have a reasonable suit, you are happy to play a 4-3 spade fit in 2 spades. What are you going to do if it goes P 2d P P back to you? bid spades now? be happy with your jxxx defending their fit at the two level?

 

This hand is a non event. Bid one spade, see what happens. Even if the opps have a spade fit, it might be best to bid 1S so they wont play 2S.

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[hv=pc=n&s=s974ht8652d92cak9&w=s86hakq73dk83c864&n=saj53hj4daqt4cqt5&e=skqt2h9dj765cj732&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=pp1hd1sppp&p=d9d3dqd6dad7d2d8d4d5s4]399|300[/hv]

 

At the table, I bid 1 and played it right there. Down two.

 

There was no route to a plus score. After the hand, I thought partner should have bid 1NT. This wouldn't be making, but it would only be down one. Minus 200 was a multi-way tie for bottom, minus 100 would have been close to average. If I passed, everything would depend on what LHO did. If she passed and partner played 1 doubled, we would have a zero; if LHO bid 1NT and we held it to 1, we would be above average.

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