Phil Posted July 12, 2012 Report Share Posted July 12, 2012 AKQJTxxx AKQ K xx 2C - (2S*) - pass** - (3C***)3S - (p) - 4C - (p)? * - clubs or reds** - GF*** - pass / correct Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted July 12, 2012 Report Share Posted July 12, 2012 AKQJTxxx AKQ K xx 2C - (2S*) - pass** - (3C***)3S - (p) - 4C - (p)? * - clubs or reds** - GF*** - pass / correctDoes "Fuction" mean 14 in some language? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted July 12, 2012 Report Share Posted July 12, 2012 Nice hand, too bad I have to call the TD... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted July 12, 2012 Report Share Posted July 12, 2012 I have never been able to handle hands with 11 top tricks and 3 losers. Clearly, if partner has an ace, I have 12 tricks. But then there is that two loser problem. I am stymied. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted July 12, 2012 Report Share Posted July 12, 2012 Forgive me for posting in the expert forum, but I like to put up an opinion for experts to shoot down. 4♣ has to be a control, and having already shown a positive for the GF pass, it is likely to be stronger than a minimum GF, which may just raise to 4. So give partner 2 controls on a good day. It seems to me that it could still be clubs or reds, but in my experience of suction a single suit is more likely, so if opponents have the ♣Ace I place the Ace on the left and slam is on. I am happy enough to ace ask at this point. Stymied, yes, but even if it is not a good day, I am reluctant to bid just game. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted July 12, 2012 Report Share Posted July 12, 2012 What would 3♣ have meant over 2♠? That seems rather important in establishing the meaning of 4♣. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rduran1216 Posted July 12, 2012 Report Share Posted July 12, 2012 I assume you were 7312 phil, 4C is forcing thats for sure, a well placed K or perhaps an A, time to cue 4D now. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gszes Posted July 12, 2012 Report Share Posted July 12, 2012 was the pass itself that was game forcing (showing values) or was thefact that you opened 2c caused a GF meaning pass might still be ahand with nothing??? The reason this is important is because it canhelp show the difference btn a hand that is using last train and one thatis cue bidding. xxx xxx QJx Kxxx xxx xxx QJxx xxx If your pass showed values (like hand 1) then 4c has to be a cue bid butif your hand could have been broke then 4c could be use to show a handwith some values like hand 2. If p promised values then it is safe to bid 4nbut if p could have been broke you will have to cue bid (4d) to see if they can show more Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
SteveMoe Posted July 13, 2012 Report Share Posted July 13, 2012 Never had to bid an 8=3=1=2 hand before. Does that mean the odds for an overtrick go up? ;) I would expect a♣ control from partner and a desire to explore further. I'm bidding 4♥ trusting ♠ have been agreed.Keeping it simple... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted July 13, 2012 Report Share Posted July 13, 2012 What would 3♣ have meant over 2♠? That seems rather important in establishing the meaning of 4♣. I think it would mean clubs and a positive hand, while pass can still have clubs but not as weak as 2nd negative. These are my assumptions though, i don't knwo their system. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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