awm Posted June 28, 2012 Report Share Posted June 28, 2012 What do people think about responding 2♣ stayman to 1NT on less than invitational values, with 4-4 in the majors? It's pretty normal to bid this way (garbage stayman) with 4450 or 4441 shape, so the question is more about hands which have fewer diamonds. For example, opposite a 15-17 notrump you might hold a 4423 with 0-7 points. Do you bid stayman? If the answer is "sometimes" what factors into your decision? 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted June 28, 2012 Report Share Posted June 28, 2012 I usually don't but if the suits have good spots and the hand very weak I would. JT98-JT98-432-32 is ideal. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted June 28, 2012 Report Share Posted June 28, 2012 I used to do it but some simulations and bad experiences convinced me not to. I still like experimenting with stuff like bid 2C intending to bid 2NT over 2D or pass 2M with near-invites with 44 balanced hands but it probably doesn't work. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted June 28, 2012 Report Share Posted June 28, 2012 It's pretty normal to bid this way (garbage stayman) with 4450 or 4441 shape, so the question is more about hands which have fewer diamonds. For example, opposite a 15-17 notrump you might hold a 4423 with 0-7 points. Do you bid stayman? If the answer is "sometimes" what factors into your decision?FWIW, we stopped calling the 4-4-5-0, 4-4-4-1, or (43)5-1 situation "Garbage Stayman" and switched to "Drop Dead Stayman" when we read articles advocating Stayman on the 4423 0-7 pt hands, and they were calling it Garbage Stayman. We also choose not to do it with those 4-4 balanced hands and haven't lamented. We would have to adjust rebids after a 2D answer, which would mess up our current structure --in addition to other bad things which could happen. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
billw55 Posted June 28, 2012 Report Share Posted June 28, 2012 I would be more tempted to bid an offshape junk stayman at matchpoints than at IMPs, and most of all at BAM. I expect partner will bid a major more often than 2♦. I would need an understanding partner for those times it fails though. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted June 28, 2012 Report Share Posted June 28, 2012 Having a 15/16 NT puts me in the happy situation where 2NT over a major is to play and not an invite. So I do this with sufficient values but not a game hand, regardless of minor shape. I wouldn't do it with a typical 4-6 count without 4 diamonds, but I have done it without diamonds and say 0-2 points, at matchpoints as a preempt, but I don't remember it as successful. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
masse24 Posted June 28, 2012 Report Share Posted June 28, 2012 An interesting discussion from several years ago here: Four-Four in Majors After Partner Opens 1NT (15-17) As expected....no clear consensus, but, I tend to do it the weaker I am. If 6-7 HCP I am more likely to pass on the theory that 1NT will make. :) 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lalldonn Posted June 28, 2012 Report Share Posted June 28, 2012 I used to do it more, but pretty much only now with most of the strength in the majors and some good spot cards in the majors too. A 4-3 fit in a lousy major doesn't seem to work very well. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gszes Posted June 28, 2012 Report Share Posted June 28, 2012 there is emerganey stayman and garbage stayman the two are somewhat similarbut the responses to garbage stayman give up on some major suit games and is not usually a good idea at imps. At MP however has some strengths. Emergency stayman is when you hate the idea of 1n becasue your hand is so weakand you intend to pass whatever p bids. This limits your hand types and should onlybe used when you have decent fear of being stuck in 1n and can reasonably passa 2 d/h/s bid from p. Distributions for this type of bid (usually with around 4 hcp max)4450 4441 3451 4351 ---this treatment requires no alert since it is standard practice. Garbage stayman focuses on finding a safe place to play in the majors OR (depending onpartnership agreement on how far they want to go with this treatment) a weak hand witha 4 card major and a 6(5) card minor. The general responses with the expanded version IF OPENER BIDS 2D 2h asks p to pass with 3 hearts or: bid 2s with 3 spades (responder can pass or bid their minor) OR bid 3c with 22 in the majors which responder will pass 2s asks opener to pass with 3 spades or bid 3c which responder will pass IF OPENER BIDS 2H 2s asks opener to pass with 3 spades or to bid 3c which repsonder will pass or bid 3d. IF OPENER BIDS 2S responder will pass or bid their minor. It is important to note that garbage stayman has many more distributions available for use it gives up a fair amount of spade that most feel is better utilized searching for games/slams and this is especially true if you include theminors. Using garbage stayman when you have only 44 in majors can also run into trouble if opener started with 22in the majors though this does not happen often and at MP will probably result in a merely poorer result thanthe rest of the field. IMO garbage stayman is a useful tool but I would only use it as a passed had where slam considerations areextremely limited. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOGIC Posted June 28, 2012 Report Share Posted June 28, 2012 What do people think about responding 2♣ stayman to 1NT on less than invitational values, with 4-4 in the majors? It's pretty normal to bid this way (garbage stayman) with 4450 or 4441 shape, so the question is more about hands which have fewer diamonds. For example, opposite a 15-17 notrump you might hold a 4423 with 0-7 points. Do you bid stayman? If the answer is "sometimes" what factors into your decision? I do it rarely, I know many good players do it often, I think as long as you don't mess up the automatic passes or automatic staymans it probably doesn't matter what you do with the in between hands. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Yu18772 Posted June 29, 2012 Report Share Posted June 29, 2012 I think it may depend on how often you open 1NT with 2:2:(5:4) hands. We used to open these 1NT almost automatically, unless the minors were really good and majors xx in both. So we also almost never bid garbage without 4 diamonds. The 1NT-2♣-2♦-2♥ would usually be at least 5 -4....(not that we didnt end playing in 4-2 fit that way :)) http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/public/style_emoticons/default/rolleyes.gifYu Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted June 29, 2012 Report Share Posted June 29, 2012 I wonder, if so many do it only rarely, why not change that to never and use 1nt-2c-2d-2h for something constructive? With weak 5-4 or 5-5 you can always transfer and hope for the best. (just a thought) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rhm Posted June 29, 2012 Report Share Posted June 29, 2012 I consider this a subject ideal for computer analysis Extensive results from double dummy analysis "Drop Dead Stayman" On what shapes and strengths is it appropriate? can be found at http://taigabridge.net/articles/dd/garbage.htm The results indicate with few exceptions that those who do not pass are right much more often than not. To cite from the web site: "The two fundamental conclusions are having three cards in a suit is okay, but having only two is bad and the weaker responder's hand is, the larger the profit from using Drop-Dead Stayman." Rainer Herrmann 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted June 29, 2012 Report Share Posted June 29, 2012 It still hurts: Board 3 We have a comfortable 4-4 heart fit. I passed the North hand. Ed Davis and Sid Brownstein defended 1N perfectly and beat it 3 tricks - 1.5 out of 25 for us. The swing might have been from the defense. Most pairs were -50 or -100 our way. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jeffford76 Posted June 29, 2012 Report Share Posted June 29, 2012 I thought computer simulation had shown that this improved the contract on average, but with incredibly high variance. So you have to decide whether you want to swing against the field. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted June 29, 2012 Author Report Share Posted June 29, 2012 An additional question: Suppose you do bid stayman with a 44(32) and partner rebids 2♦; do you pass or try 2♥? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Yu18772 Posted June 29, 2012 Report Share Posted June 29, 2012 I consider this a subject ideal for computer analysis http://taigabridge.n.../dd/garbage.htmRainer Herrmann I didnt find what distributions were included in 1NT simulation......http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/public/style_emoticons/default/rolleyes.gifYu Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted June 29, 2012 Report Share Posted June 29, 2012 An additional question: Suppose you do bid stayman with a 44(32) and partner rebids 2♦; do you pass or try 2♥?That is easy. I will pass when pard is 3-3-2-5, and bid 2H when she is 3-2-5-3. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted June 29, 2012 Report Share Posted June 29, 2012 I consider this a subject ideal for computer analysis I think the double dummy advantage for declarer is particularly substantial in known 4-3 fits. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rhm Posted June 29, 2012 Report Share Posted June 29, 2012 I didnt find what distributions were included in 1NT simulation......http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/public/style_emoticons/default/rolleyes.gifYu Is it so difficult to read? Quote If you play very old-fashioned conservative 1NT openings -- especially if you rarely or never hold a 5-card major when you open 1NT -- you need to also be more willing to pass 1NT end-quote The extreme shapes in general (5422 etc) argue more for run-out than against it. Rainer Herrmann Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lalldonn Posted June 29, 2012 Report Share Posted June 29, 2012 An additional question: Suppose you do bid stayman with a 44(32) and partner rebids 2♦; do you pass or try 2♥?I didn't even consider passing 2♦ an option. You could have as few as 4 or 5 trumps, right? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rhm Posted June 29, 2012 Report Share Posted June 29, 2012 An additional question: Suppose you do bid stayman with a 44(32) and partner rebids 2♦; do you pass or try 2♥? 1) With 7-8 HCP I bid 2NT 2)With 0-6 HCP: With 4=4=2=3 I bid 2♥. With 4=4=3=2 I pass Rainer Herrmann Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Siegmund Posted June 29, 2012 Report Share Posted June 29, 2012 I didnt find what distributions were included in 1NT simulation...... I apologize for not repeating that clearly at the beginning of the drop-dead Stayman article; that was one of three articles on NT responses I wrote the same month, and more of the details are in the other articles. For the sim, opener's 1NT range was 15-17HCP. A 5-card major, 5422 pattern, or a 6-card minor is allowed. A singleton ace or king is not (always balanced or semibalanced.) As Rainer noted, I redid the results for a "classical" 1NT (15-17HCP, never more extreme than 5332, no 5-card major). I admit to being excited to know at least two people have actually read the article :) I have been 'practicing what I preach' since then, and getting raised eyebrows from partners for 2C on weak 3352s etc, but so far it has turned out reasonably well. A 4-3 fit does play better when you can ruff in the 3-card hand: that is a big reason why Stayman on 3352 or 3361 is a big winner, while with 4432 the case for running from diamonds to a 7-card major fit is not so compelling. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lalldonn Posted June 29, 2012 Report Share Posted June 29, 2012 1) With 7-8 HCP I bid 2NT 2)With 0-6 HCP: With 4=4=2=3 I bid 2♥. With 4=4=3=2 I pass Rainer HerrmannI don't get it with 4432. Instead of a (almost) certain 7 card fit, you would choose a fit that will (almost certainly) be anywhere from 5 to 8 cards? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Yu18772 Posted June 29, 2012 Report Share Posted June 29, 2012 Is it so difficult to read? Quote If you play very old-fashioned conservative 1NT openings -- especially if you rarely or never hold a 5-card major when you open 1NT -- you need to also be more willing to pass 1NT end-quote The extreme shapes in general (5422 etc) argue more for run-out than against it. Rainer Herrmann No its not difficult to read, however that description is hardly quantitative thus not extremely helpful imo. What I meant is just like there is a table break down of HCP and results - I would expect a table break down of possible 1NT shapes, which seems to be very relevant for overall value of this simulation. http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/public/style_emoticons/default/rolleyes.gifYu Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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