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30 members have voted

  1. 1. What's your rebid?

    • 3 Clubs
      26
    • Redouble
      3
    • Something else
      1


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As I learned things, the 3 bid is a free bid and shows extra values...

(I have the option to pass the double holding a minimum hand with a club fit)

 

Personally, I think that its better to have a more complex set of agreements and have the ability to show different strength club raises, however, I wouldn't assume this without discussion.

 

If 3C is forcing, then obviously I would bid 3C. Given that

 

A) It was posted as a problem hand

B) 3C was bid, and it was passed...

 

I'm going to guess that 3C was non forcing. Perhaps it's normal to play it as forcing, I have no clue. Intuitively, raising doesn't feel forcing, but I do not play this system so I don't know.

 

The hog seems to imply that 3C is non forcing but he will bid it anyways...because XX is "very poor, and describes a hand that wants to double them!" I am sure partner will be very confused when he doubles them and we bid clubs as to what we have. To me, ones priorities are out of whack if theyre willing to bid 3 NON FORCING clubs with a hand this good.

 

Really, what gnasher said is pretty obvious, and follows bidding logic from other situations, 2N should be a good raise, 3C a min raise, XX with a strong balanced or hand with both majors and short clubs. That gives us everything we need. The main problem with our lack of system on this hand is there is a gaping hole of either a forcing club raise, or a non forcing club raise, both of which are important to show immediately

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2N should be a good raise, 3C a min raise, XX with a strong balanced or hand with both majors and short clubs. That gives us everything we need. The main problem with our lack of system on this hand is there is a gaping hole of either a forcing club raise, or a non forcing club raise, both of which are important to show immediately

 

The ho

 

I don't disagree with that premise. By the way, don't call me a "ho". :lol:

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What do 2 or 2 mean now? Since North has shown both majors, and partner decided to bid 2 instead of 1M, isn't there a good case for using them for some artificial purpose? eg initially stop-showing probing for NT, but may turn out to be an advanced cue-bid if bidding develops that way. If responder is still desperate to look for the major suit game even though advised of the bad break, he can still raise with support for opener's major.
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What do 2 or 2 mean now? Since North has shown both majors, and partner decided to bid 2 instead of 1M, isn't there a good case for using them for some artificial purpose? eg initially stop-showing probing for NT, but may turn out to be an advanced cue-bid if bidding develops that way. If responder is still desperate to look for the major suit game even though advised of the bad break, he can still raise with support for opener's major.

 

2M is still natural, of course.

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What do 2 or 2 mean now? Since North has shown both majors, and partner decided to bid 2 instead of 1M, isn't there a good case for using them for some artificial purpose? eg initially stop-showing probing for NT, but may turn out to be an advanced cue-bid if bidding develops that way. If responder is still desperate to look for the major suit game even though advised of the bad break, he can still raise with support for opener's major.

 

2 does not deny 4 card major.

 

Assume you had 6+4M and have 12+ hcp and started 1M, and it went

 

1--1

2

 

You would have hard time to find a club fit, and even if there is not one, pd would get a wrong picture of your hand.

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2 does not deny 4 card major.

 

Assume you had 6+4M and have 12+ hcp and started 1M, and it went

 

1--1

2

 

You would have hard time to find a club fit, and even if there is not one, pd would get a wrong picture of your hand.

I'm aware of that - but that doesn't mean that you need to reserve 2 and 2 as natural bids. You can include natural among the other meanings, of course. So after 1 (P) 2 (X) 2 (P) responder can still show the 5/6-4 hand by bidding 3. But it seems rather a waste of the 2 cheapest bids to reserve them for natural on an auction when we know that our 4-4 major, if one exists, is going to break 4-1 or 5-0

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Even if 3 shows a small amount of extras to go with the fit, it doesn't need to be forcing. 5 is still is a long way off if partner is minimum, and we'll need some major suit stops from partner to make 3NT viable. Why shouldn't 3 be where we want to play?

 

PS. If 3 does show any extras, West should bid 3NT.

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