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I enjoyed this one.


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[hv=pc=n&k=e&s=skt984hkj6dqckqj4&w=s532h7dkjt953c652&n=sj6hq9854dact9873&e=saq7hat32d87642ca&d=w&v=e&b=16&a=pp1n(12-14)p2n(%21d)p3d(%21dQxx+%20%5Bor%20%21dxxxx+%5D)3spp3nppp&p=s8s2sjsqd2dqdkda&c=9]399|300[/hv]

 

Third in hand, I pick up a nice 14 count. I decided I didn't want to open 1 with such a poor suit, so I opened an off-shape weak NT.

 

After partner transferred to diamonds, I showed my good support with 3. After LHO's 3 overcall, I decided he would probably lead a spade against 3NT, and I would then take 4 tricks outside diamonds, and probably 5 or 6 in diamonds.

 

+600 was a complete top when no one else bid 3NT.

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Only if I know my opps, I'd lead a K from the south hand on this auction, if he's going to lead a spade, you make 5 too.

 

Good point. But I didn't know there was a cross-ruff in 5 - give partner a small instead of a small and I still make 3NT on a lead.

 

I might not have bid 3NT if I didn't expect a lead, but Axxxxx from partner still has play, just needing diamonds 1-1.

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3NT is a very bad bid. 1NT was already a bad bid. I should know 'cause I use to make them a lot.

 

As long as you continue to play against this kind of opponents and getting these results you will continue to make the same mistakes.

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After partner transferred to diamonds, I showed my good support with 3.

I play that the other way around. 3 would be "liking those " whereas 3 would be "I'll begrudgingly play your ". What should one assume with a pick-up?

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3NT is a very bad bid. 1NT was already a bad bid. I should know 'cause I use to make them a lot.

 

As long as you continue to play against this kind of opponents and getting these results you will continue to make the same mistakes.

 

Why is 3NT so bad when I have a good idea LHO will lead a spade? Against stronger opponents I would probably just try 4, but I would certainly be less sure what would be best.

 

Also, what would you have opened instead? Do you think the hand is worth showing 15+ if partner responds 2? I won't have a problem after any other response if I open 1, but I don't see any problems after opening 1NT either.

 

I play that the other way around. 3 would be "liking those " whereas 3 would be "I'll begrudgingly play your ". What should one assume with a pick-up?

 

Probably your way, but it might be location dependant. My way is common in my local club.

 

There are some small theoretical advantages* to my way, but being on the same wavelength is much more important.

 

*For example, with a weak hand with both minors, responder can transfer to diamonds planning to pass opener's reply. It also hides responder's hand when opener doesn't like diamonds, so the opponents don't know whether responder was looking for 3NT, or just signing off.

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Also, what would you have opened instead? Do you think the hand is worth showing 15+ if partner responds 2? I won't have a problem after any other

I think the hand is worth 15, yes. In my Acol methods I play 1 - 2; 2 as a 1 round force that does not promise extra diamond length. That would also be a possibility if you had the club in your bag.

 

Agree with you about 3 "like" having a small theoretical advantage. With a pick up partner I would assume 2NT was natural though! As you say, being on the same wavelength is the most important thing.

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I don't know much about acol but I do know that opening unnecessary 1NT with a singleton is losing bridge. Here your stiff is the Ace of clubs (therefore length in the majors) so the last thing you want to be doing is to open 1NT and have it go 1NT-all pass and miss your major suit fit when you can potentially have a game on. Sure the last thing we want to be hearing is partner responding 2 but who says partner will do that? Maybe partner will respond 1M or 1NT or raise diamonds, or maybe it's the opponents who interferes with clubs and partner can bid a major suit or make a negative double etc etc.
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